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Christ Receiving Priesthood/ordinances


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Posted

There was a thread a while back concerning when Christ received the priesthood or his endowment?

I had proposed the Mt of Transfiguration as the most likely possibility as it was similar to D&C 110.

The idea was advanced by several posters that Christ needed no ordination, no restoration of keys for his dispensation, and that he had the power inate within him.

I preferred the idea that Christ was ordained/endowed just as he was baptized, to fulfill all righteousness.

 

I came across this quote from Joseph Smith that I had forgotten about:

 

Men will set up stakes and say thus far will we go and no farther. Did Abraham when called upon to offer his son? Did the Saviour? No.  View him fulfilling all righteousness again on the banks of jordon.  Also on the Mount transfigured before Peter and John, there receiving the fulness of priesthood or the law of God, setting up no stake but coming right up to the mark in all things. Hear him after he returned from the Mount.  Did ever language of such magnitude fall from the lips of any man, hearken him. All power is given is given unto me both in heaven and the earth.

 

"Fulness of priesthood" generally refers to temple ordinances, specifically being ordained King & Priest and completing both endowments.  Was this the restoration to Christ of this ordinance, just as he received other ordinances like baptism?

 

Thoughts?

Posted

It's an interesting idea.

 

I just don't see the need for Jesus to receive a Priesthood ordination.  Ordination is the delegation of authority from someone else; someone in whom it resides as of right.  Who, exactly?

 

In whose name are we ordained?

 

I can find no suggestion that Jesus received delegated authority.  The authority belongs to Him by right; there is no-one who can delegate it to Him, because there is no-one who held it prior to Him.

Posted

It's an interesting idea.

 

I just don't see the need for Jesus to receive a Priesthood ordination.  Ordination is the delegation of authority from someone else; someone in whom it resides as of right.  Who, exactly?

 

In whose name are we ordained?

 

I can find no suggestion that Jesus received delegated authority.  The authority belongs to Him by right; there is no-one who can delegate it to Him, because there is no-one who held it prior to Him.

 

There were many who held priesthood in mortality before Christ.

We were all ordained in premortality to priesthood, Christ being the top.

But just as Christ was baptized with no sin, so it seems he was ordained in mortality for the same reason.  To fulfill all righteousness.

Posted

I tend to agree that He was ordained and received the blessings of the temple to be an example to us. The blessings were rightly His, but He lived a life of humility and submitted to all ordinances that we did to be our perfect exemplar

Posted (edited)

I believe Christ was baptized by one who had the authority because there WAS in fact someone on the earth who had the authority to baptise.

 

No one else was on the earth to give and perform other ordinances of salvation and exaltation, thus the power would have resided with HIm, and then he bestowed those for which he did bestow at the time.

Edited by williamsmith
Posted
In Hebrews we read:

 

"And no man taketh this honour unto himself, but he that is called of God, as was Aaron.

So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.

As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec." (Heb 5:4-6, 9-10) 

 

According to Joseph Smith, before the world was created, Jesus  in the spirit world, covenanted to use the power he had obtained from the Father to implement God's program for the eternal happiness of all God's children (Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, p. 190)

 

So it appears from this and the Hebrews scripture above, that Jesus received His priesthood authority from God the Father, which, according to Joseph Smith has "existed with God from eternity, and will to eternity, without beginning of days or end of years,…holding the keys of power and blessings." (TPJS, pp. 157, 322)
Posted

I recently wrote a post about this topic, see here.  To sum up: I had a recollection reading/hearing that Jesus received the Melchizedek Priesthood on the Mount of Transfiguration. However, I have not as yet located an authoritative source for this, so it remains only a recollection on my part.

Thanks,

-Smac

Posted

We were all ordained in premortality to priesthood, Christ being the top.

This is interesting as I haven't heard this expressed before.  Do you have references for that as I'd love to read more about it.

 

And, are you saying that "all" were ordained, or just men?

Posted

In order to be exalted a man and woman must enter into the priesthood order of marriage. I don't see how Christ would be exempt from that.

Posted

I recently wrote a post about this topic, see here.  To sum up: I had a recollection reading/hearing that Jesus received the Melchizedek Priesthood on the Mount of Transfiguration. However, I have not as yet located an authoritative source for this, so it remains only a recollection on my part.

Thanks,

-Smac

 

Is the Joseph Smith quote provided not "authoritative" enough?  I don't think the Church has officially made any other claim either way.

Posted

This is interesting as I haven't heard this expressed before.  Do you have references for that as I'd love to read more about it.

 

And, are you saying that "all" were ordained, or just men?

 

There is a quote on the subject that we received priesthood ordination in premortality, but I don't recall where.  I will see if I can find it tonight unless someone beats me to it.

Posted

There is a quote on the subject that we received priesthood ordination in premortality, but I don't recall where.  I will see if I can find it tonight unless someone beats me to it.

Thanks, I appreciate you doing that and I look forward to reading them.

Posted

Thanks, I appreciate you doing that and I look forward to reading them.

 

Alma 13:1-9 alludes to this topic.

Here's a few quotes on the subject.

 

Joseph Smith

Every man who has a calling to minister to the inhabitants of the world was ordained to that very purpose in the Grand Council of heaven before this world was. I suppose I was ordained to this very office in that Grand Council. (Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, p. 365)

 

Joseph Fielding Smith

In regard to the holding of the priesthood in preexistence, I will say that there was an organization there just as well as an organization here, and men there held authority. Men chosen to positions of trust in the spirit world held priesthood (Doctrines of Salvation 3:81)

 

During the ages in which we dwelt in the pre-mortal state we not only developed our various characteristics and showed our worthiness and ability, or the lack of it, but we were also where such progress could be observed. It is reasonable to believe that there was a Church organization there. The heavenly beings were living in a perfectly arranged society. Every person knew his place. Priesthood, without any question, had been conferred and the leaders were chosen to officiate. Ordinances pertaining to that pre-existence were required and the love of God prevailed. Under such conditions it was natural for our Father to discern and choose those who were most worthy and evaluate the talents of each individual. He knew not only what each of us could do, but also what each of us would do when put to the test and when responsibility was given us. Then, when the time came for our habitation on mortal earth, all things were prepared and the servants of the Lord chosen and ordained to their respective missions. (The Way to Perfection [1970], 50–51)

 

Bruce R. McConkie

We received the priesthood first in the premortal existence and then again as mortals. Adam held the keys and used the priesthood when he participated in the creation of the earth. After his baptism he received the priesthood again, and he now stands as the presiding High Priest over all the earth.

 

All of us who have calls to minister in the holy priesthood were foreordained to be ministers of Christ, and to come here in our appointed days, and to labor on his errand. (Ensign, May 1982, 32-34)

 

Russell M. Nelson (Quorum of the Twelve)

Every man who has received the Melchizedek Priesthood has been foreordained from the foundations of the world for that privilege. (Perfection Pending, 206)

 

 

David A. Bednar (Quorum of the Seventy)

Every man who holds the priesthood was foreordained to that very responsibility in the premortal existence. (“Teach them to Understand,” Ricks College Education Week, June 4, 1998)

Posted

There was a thread a while back concerning when Christ received the priesthood or his endowment?

I had proposed the Mt of Transfiguration as the most likely possibility as it was similar to D&C 110.

The idea was advanced by several posters that Christ needed no ordination, no restoration of keys for his dispensation, and that he had the power inate within him.

I preferred the idea that Christ was ordained/endowed just as he was baptized, to fulfill all righteousness.

 

I came across this quote from Joseph Smith that I had forgotten about:

 

Men will set up stakes and say thus far will we go and no farther. Did Abraham when called upon to offer his son? Did the Saviour? No.  View him fulfilling all righteousness again on the banks of jordon.  Also on the Mount transfigured before Peter and John, there receiving the fulness of priesthood or the law of God, setting up no stake but coming right up to the mark in all things. Hear him after he returned from the Mount.  Did ever language of such magnitude fall from the lips of any man, hearken him. All power is given is given unto me both in heaven and the earth.

 

"Fulness of priesthood" generally refers to temple ordinances, specifically being ordained King & Priest and completing both endowments.  Was this the restoration to Christ of this ordinance, just as he received other ordinances like baptism?

 

Thoughts?

Yes. Nothing much more to say.
Posted

Alma 13:1-9 alludes to this topic.

Here's a few quotes on the subject.

 

Joseph Smith

Every man who has a calling to minister to the inhabitants of the world was ordained to that very purpose in the Grand Council of heaven before this world was. I suppose I was ordained to this very office in that Grand Council. (Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, p. 365)

 

Joseph Fielding Smith

In regard to the holding of the priesthood in preexistence, I will say that there was an organization there just as well as an organization here, and men there held authority. Men chosen to positions of trust in the spirit world held priesthood (Doctrines of Salvation 3:81)

 

During the ages in which we dwelt in the pre-mortal state we not only developed our various characteristics and showed our worthiness and ability, or the lack of it, but we were also where such progress could be observed. It is reasonable to believe that there was a Church organization there. The heavenly beings were living in a perfectly arranged society. Every person knew his place. Priesthood, without any question, had been conferred and the leaders were chosen to officiate. Ordinances pertaining to that pre-existence were required and the love of God prevailed. Under such conditions it was natural for our Father to discern and choose those who were most worthy and evaluate the talents of each individual. He knew not only what each of us could do, but also what each of us would do when put to the test and when responsibility was given us. Then, when the time came for our habitation on mortal earth, all things were prepared and the servants of the Lord chosen and ordained to their respective missions. (The Way to Perfection [1970], 50–51)

 

Bruce R. McConkie

We received the priesthood first in the premortal existence and then again as mortals. Adam held the keys and used the priesthood when he participated in the creation of the earth. After his baptism he received the priesthood again, and he now stands as the presiding High Priest over all the earth.

 

All of us who have calls to minister in the holy priesthood were foreordained to be ministers of Christ, and to come here in our appointed days, and to labor on his errand. (Ensign, May 1982, 32-34)

 

Russell M. Nelson (Quorum of the Twelve)

Every man who has received the Melchizedek Priesthood has been foreordained from the foundations of the world for that privilege. (Perfection Pending, 206)

 

 

David A. Bednar (Quorum of the Seventy)

Every man who holds the priesthood was foreordained to that very responsibility in the premortal existence. (“Teach them to Understand,” Ricks College Education Week, June 4, 1998)

Thanks for posting these for me, JLHPROF.  Very interesting!

Posted

In order to be exalted a man and woman must enter into the priesthood order of marriage. I don't see how Christ would be exempt from that.

Jesus is fundamentally different from us in some way.

Posted

Jesus is fundamentally different from us in some way.

 

Christ was perfect and without sin it's true.  But one of the key aspects of the atonement is that he was fully mortal, fully human, and fully subject to the flesh and its weakness.  Therefore Christ fully participated in all the saving/exalting ordinances as every other human has to go to.  He was without sin and yet he entered the baptismal covenant and all it entails - promising to take upon himself the name of Christ and keep the commandments.  He instituted the sacrament, partaking of bread and wine in memory of his own sacrifice.  He received his second anointing from Mary.  Several places in the NT allude to his wearing garments.  And on the Mount of Transfiguration according to Joseph Smith he received the keys of priesthood and his endowment.

 

I don't know why people like to create a distance with Christ when he himself set the example, fulfilled all righteousness, and asks us to do nothing he himself did not do.

Posted

Christ was perfect and without sin it's true.  But one of the key aspects of the atonement is that he was fully mortal, fully human, and fully subject to the flesh and its weakness.  Therefore Christ fully participated in all the saving/exalting ordinances as every other human has to go to.  He was without sin and yet he entered the baptismal covenant and all it entails - promising to take upon himself the name of Christ and keep the commandments.  He instituted the sacrament, partaking of bread and wine in memory of his own sacrifice.  He received his second anointing from Mary.  Several places in the NT allude to his wearing garments.  And on the Mount of Transfiguration according to Joseph Smith he received the keys of priesthood and his endowment.

 

I don't know why people like to create a distance with Christ when he himself set the example, fulfilled all righteousness, and asks us to do nothing he himself did not do.

He asks us to repent which he never did. ;)

I keep that distance because Jesus did. He is not like us and it is possible that some laws were different for him that we do not know of.

Posted

He asks us to repent which he never did. ;)

 

Then why be baptized?  No sin.  He could have been resurrected without accepting an atonement as symbolized in baptism.

Posted

Then why be baptized?  No sin.  He could have been resurrected without accepting an atonement as symbolized in baptism.

Because his Father asked him to and if he did not obey he would have sinned and needed it anyways.

Posted

Not all commandments are necessary simply because they show obedience to the Father. Some are necessary to unlock full divine potential. The highest ordinances such as the sealing and marriage orders are among these. Even Christ cannot become a father without a Mother at his side. And the act of having a Mother at his side signifies entrance into an order of the priesthood.

Posted

Because his Father asked him to and if he did not obey he would have sinned and needed it anyways.

 

I apply that same logic to all the other ordinances.  For example:

God never revoked the command to multiply and replenish the earth (marry).

Christ told the apostles that If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me. (w&a)

 

Christ would likewise have been in violation of God's commands to skip any ordinance.

Posted

I apply that same logic to all the other ordinances.  For example:

God never revoked the command to multiply and replenish the earth (marry).

Christ told the apostles that If I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me. (w&a)

 

Christ would likewise have been in violation of God's commands to skip any ordinance.

Not necessarily. We are not privy to most of what the Father told his Son. We can guess but it is just that: a guess.

Posted (edited)

Some personal revelation on my part: (You can take it with a grain of salt)

 

Women are ordained to the Priesthood at/before birth by their very being, for them being WO-men.  The Highest order of the priesthood of propagating the species is woven into their very being.

 

Men on the otherhand have to be whipped into shape and thus they have the list of todo's... get the aaronic priesthood... do this and this and this... get the Melq. Priethood and do this and this and this.   Endure to the end with your woman.

 

So men are ordained in life to the Highest order of the Priesthood as they are taught line upon line.  Women are already part of the Highest order of Priesthood.  But they cannot wield the power alone.  Neither one is without the other in the Lord.

 

Paul says "woman will be saved in child baring" because she is fulfilling her priesthood calling as a child barer. Men have to be initiated into that order after being taught by their mothers how to act and perform in that priesthood capacity. He needs to learn how to treat women right and not be a fuddy-duddy.

Edited by Zakuska
Posted

Some personal revelation on my part: (You can take it with a grain of salt)

 

Women are ordained to the Priesthood at/before birth by their very being, for them being WO-men.  The Highest order of the priesthood of propagating the species is woven into their very being.

 

Men on the otherhand have to be whipped into shape and thus they have the list of todo's... get the aaronic priesthood... do this and this and this... get the Melq. Priethood and do this and this and this.   Endure to the end with your woman.

 

So men are ordained in life to the Highest order of the Priesthood as they are taught line upon line.  Women are already part of the Highest order of Priesthood.  But they cannot wield the power alone.  Neither one is without the other in the Lord.

 

Paul says "woman will be saved in child baring" because she is fulfilling her priesthood calling as a child barer. Men have to be initiated into that order after being taught by their mothers how to act and perform in that priesthood capacity. He needs to learn how to treat women right and not be a fuddy-duddy.

 

 

I'd love to agree, but men and women are both ordained to the highest order of the priesthood here.  It is no more automatic for women than men.  Both are ordained in a similar fashion.

 

However, the final ordinance a man can receive in this life (prior to meeting the Savior) is given by his wife.  That surely says something.

And there is definitely something to the statement that women are saved in childbearing.

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