mfbukowski Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Did I state anywhere in there I know I am 100% right? I asked a question of the LDS crowd. They are. Truth changes. So what if it is different in a thousand years?
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Jacob 2:24 says that God considered David's and Solomon's polygamy as "abominable before me." (See also Jacob 1:15, 3:5.) Compare God's attitude to: D&C 132:38-39 God says that David and Solomon did not sin in having more than one wife, and David's wives were "given unto him of me." Did these come from man or from God? they are both from God, which you would realize if you read them in context. Why do you want to dishonestly remove them from their context? 1
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 In short, there is a line of thinking that says Ephesians 2:8-9 really means what it says, and Christ accomplished everything we will ever need. Temple work etc. is not required, it has all been completed. If you take that view then it is not too far a stretch to say that no further revelation is needed.then why give the Holy Ghost?and why did Paul say to work out our salvation? 1
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Did I state anywhere in there I know I am 100% right? I asked a question of the LDS crowd.if you don't believe you're correct, why don't you find out what is correct instead of attacking the scriptures and faith of others? 1
mfbukowski Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 massAnd whatever church you belong to, I GUARANTEE that the views of your "church" have changed in the last thousand years. I presume you are Catholic. If you are Protestant obviously your chuch did not exist 1000 years ago. If you are Buddhist, that has changed. Change is part of the territory of religion
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 They are. Truth changes. So what if it is different in a thousand years?I was thinking specifically of repentance when I asked this question. Alma 34 seems to say repentance is a task for this life alone. Therefore if something was revealed that was needed for repentance, well then a lot of people are up a creek without a paddle aren't they?
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 they are both from God, which you would realize if you read them in context. Why do you want to dishonestly remove them from their context?What does the context add that i didn't, please explain. I try very hard to read things in context.
mfbukowski Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 I was thinking specifically of repentance when I asked this question. Alma 34 seems to say repentance is a task for this life alone. Therefore if something was revealed that was needed for repentance, well then a lot of people are up a creek without a paddle aren't they? Not at all.That is what an open canon is for. Living prophets trump dead prophets. End of thread. 1
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 yes. You really dont understand the scriptures do you?what is the role of the Holy Ghost and when did He stop acting within the Church?I never said he stopped acting. John 16:5-15. Rom 8:26. Etc.
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 Not at all.That is what an open canon is for. Living prophets trump dead prophets. End of thread.Huh? So you consider Alma 34 trumped? Am I understanding that?
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 if you don't believe you're correct, why don't you find out what is correct instead of attacking the scriptures and faith of others?This is part of finding out what is correct. Why are you engaging me if you're not open to this idea.
JAHS Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Jacob 2:24 says that God considered David's and Solomon's polygamy as "abominable before me." (See also Jacob 1:15, 3:5.) Compare God's attitude to: D&C 132:38-39 God says that David and Solomon did not sin in having more than one wife, and David's wives were "given unto him of me." Did these come from man or from God? In both David's and Solomon's cases, some of their wives and concubines were "received not of me", because of the way they obtained a few of them (eg. David having Uriah killed and taking his wife (2 Sam 12: 9)), as God explains in D&C 132:38:"David also received many wives and concubines, and also Solomon and Moses my servants, as also many others of my servants, from the beginning of creation until this time; and in nothing did they sin save in those things which they received not of me." So "some" of the wives that were obtained is what was abominable before the Lord, as stated in Jacob 2:24. 1
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 In both David's and Solomon's cases, some of their wives and concubines were "received not of me", because of the way they obtained a few of them (eg. David having Uriah killed and taking his wife (2 Sam 12: 9)), as God explains in D&C 132:38:"David also received many wives and concubines, and also Solomon and Moses my servants, as also many others of my servants, from the beginning of creation until this time; and in nothing did they sin save in those things which they received not of me." So "some" of the wives that were obtained is what was abominable before the Lord, as stated in Jacob 2:24. Try Jacob 2:24 again, the context is much more general than you are insinuating. They had many wives, that was what the Lord said was abominable. 24 Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.
mfbukowski Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 (edited) Huh? So you consider Alma 34 trumped? Am I understanding that? That's an over simplification but you are not interested in the truth anyway. So sure, why not? Your expected reply is something like "Oh- but that's not what Mormons believe". Go ahead. Your move. Edited January 16, 2015 by mfbukowski
JLHPROF Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Jacob 2:24 says that God considered David's and Solomon's polygamy as "abominable before me." (See also Jacob 1:15, 3:5.) Compare God's attitude to: D&C 132:38-39 God says that David and Solomon did not sin in having more than one wife, and David's wives were "given unto him of me." Did these come from man or from God? That's right - no contradiction at all. David and Solomon had on sin in living plural marriage.David and Solomon eventually corrupted the practice - David through murder, Solomon by being led astray by foreign wives religions. No sin in polygamy. Sin in corrupt behaviors.
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 That's right - no contradiction at all. David and Solomon had on sin in living plural marriage.David and Solomon eventually corrupted the practice - David through murder, Solomon by being led astray by foreign wives religions. No sin in polygamy. Sin in corrupt behaviors.You're not addressing Jacob 2:24 at all with this explanation. What about that half? 24 Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.
ERayR Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 You're not addressing Jacob 2:24 at all with this explanation. What about that half? 24 Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord. And you are not addressing Jacob 2:30. 30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 I never said he stopped acting. John 16:5-15. Rom 8:26. Etc.then revelation continues since the Holy Ghost is a revelator and is God so He speaks the Word of God. As long as the Holy Spirit speaks revelation will not and cannot cease.
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 then revelation continues since the Holy Ghost is a revelator and is God so He speaks the Word of God. As long as the Holy Spirit speaks revelation will not and cannot cease.There is a difference between this and saying that He might continue revealing things that affect our salvation, no?
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 And you are not addressing Jacob 2:30. 30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.Please explain how this is relevant. What does it mean?
The Nehor Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 In short, there is a line of thinking that says Ephesians 2:8-9 really means what it says, and Christ accomplished everything we will ever need. Temple work etc. is not required, it has all been completed. If you take that view then it is not too far a stretch to say that no further revelation is needed.So.....we should cut all other books out of the Bible because that sums it all up right there?It would probably help. I mean you have Jesus's requirements to get into heaven in the parable of the sheep and the goats and it might mess us your neat oversimplified understanding and confuse matters to include it.
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 There is a difference between this and saying that He might continue revealing things that affect our salvation, no?listening to the Holy spirit doesn't affect our salvation? seriously?
Avatar4321 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Please explain how this is relevant. What does it mean?it means you don't give a flying squirrel about context. 1
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 listening to the Holy spirit doesn't affect our salvation? seriously?The Spirit does not change the Gospel, merely our understanding of it, over time, we are the ones being changed
mass168 Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 it means you don't give a flying squirrel about context.Not true. Please explain what it means.
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