Hyperbole In The Scriptures

[cdowis]

I have run into a few situations where I have found that prophets sometimes use hyperbole to emphasize a certain doctrine.  This  often causes confusion in interpretation.  A couple of well-known examples:

 

1. Jacob 2 [24] Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.

 

But he goes on and says

[30] For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.

 

2. Paul goes on and on about works and grace

 

Gal 2 [16] Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

 

[Senator]

Teacher,  (raises hand)

 

I'm not seeing the hyperbole...

[cdowis]

How do you resolve the apparent contradiction betweem Jacob 2 verses 24 and 30.  What is he saying about David and Solomon.

 

 

Please write a two page paper and turn it in by Friday. 

[ksfisher]

I looked up the definition of hyperbole, to make sure I understood it correctly, and I don't see any either in the verses you mentioned.

[Mola Ram Suda Ram]

How do you resolve the apparent contradiction betweem Jacob 2 verses 24 and 30.  What is he saying about David and Solomon.

 

 

Please write a two page paper and turn it in by Friday. 

As I understood it not all of the wives Solomon had were given of him by God. That was the issue.

[Senator]

How do you resolve the apparent contradiction betweem Jacob 2 verses 24 and 30.  What is he saying about David and Solomon.

 

 

Please write a two page paper and turn it in by Friday. 

 

He doesn't explicitly say what he will command his people to do. Obviously, whatever it is, it will be something other than what David and Solomon did.

 

 

 

 

 

....never gunna make 2 pages........by Friday...

[cdowis]

I looked up the definition of hyperbole, to make sure I understood it correctly, and I don't see any either in the verses you mentioned.

 

Interesting.  It appears that you have not taken the prerequisites for the class.

[cdowis]

As I understood it not all of the wives Solomon had were given of him by God. That was the issue.

 

Also Senator,

 

One very basic skill in interpretation is to read in context, rather than in isolation.  Is Jacob talking about multiple wives, or marrying the wrong sort of wife. 

Edited September 25, 2013 by cdowis

[JLHPROF]

I have run into a few situations where I have found that prophets sometimes use hyperbole to emphasize a certain doctrine.  This  often causes confusion in interpretation.  A couple of well-known examples:

 

1. Jacob 2 [24] Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.

 

But he goes on and says

[30] For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.

 

2. Paul goes on and on about works and grace

 

Gal 2 [16] Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

hy·per·bo·le  (h-pûrb-l)

n.

A figure of speech in which exaggeration is used for emphasis or effect, as in I could sleep for a year or This book weighs a ton.

 

Not seeing the hyperbole either.  However if you are talking about the contradictions I do see those, but, at least in Jacob 2, these have been explained many times.

[Freedom]

Because the Nephites had the Old Testament, they would have known the full story. That is, they were aware that many of the wives were approved, but also that many were not. I could say 'the world trade center disaster' and you would immediately assume (quite correctly) that I am referring to the specific event of 9/11. Of course, there were many disasters of lesser degree at the trade center previous to 9/11, and saying 'word trade center disaster' does not imply that the entire history of the building was a disaster. Only that one event encompasses the disaster.

 

So with this reference - they knew the history, so verse 24 would mean the same thing it does to us - although they had many wives that were approved of God, they also had many that were not. Verse 30 cements that notion. Although God may command it to be so, as with David and Solomon, if he does not it is an abomination, as with David and Solomon.

 

It is likely that his people were justifying their adultery and fornication by bringing up David. Jacob was reminding them that there is a time and a place, and this was not one of them.

[cdowis]

 

It is likely that his people were justifying their adultery and fornication by bringing up David. Jacob was reminding them that there is a time and a place, and this was not one of them.

 

That is correct.  Rather than get into a long argument over this practice, Jacob was using hyperbole to shake them up, rebut their justification for sin == David and Solomon committed "an abomination". 

 

Not really, as he then explains in verse 24.

 

So the two verses appear to contradict each other, and they do.

Edited September 25, 2013 by cdowis

[Freedom]

No contradiction. One is referring to the corrupt practice, the other is explaining the circumstances under which it is not corrupt. David did commit an abomination, there is no hyperbole here. It would be hyperbole to say they had enough wives to fill all the bedrooms of the earth, but there is no hyperbole in these verses.

[The Nehor]

"I will show mercy unto you"

Pure Hyperbole.

[Bob Crockett]

I have run into a few situations where I have found that prophets sometimes use hyperbole to emphasize a certain doctrine.  This  often causes confusion in interpretation.  A couple of well-known examples:

 

1. Jacob 2 [24] Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.

 

But he goes on and says

[30] For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.

 

2. Paul goes on and on about works and grace

 

Gal 2 [16] Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Hyperbole isn't the right description.

 

Jacob 2:24 seems to leaving stuff out.   Solomon's objectionable conduct in the OT is not that he had many wives and concubines, but that he married foreign wives and took foreign concubines and followed their Gods.  David's objectionable conduct in the OT is not that he had many wives and concubines, but that he took one too many, Bathseba, and that he killed for her.  Or was it one too many, as the Savior's line came through her?

 

But, the scriptures are not legal documents filled with provisos and qualifiers.  I think Jacob 2 assumes the reader is familiar with David and Solomon.

[cdowis]

Hyperbole isn't the right description.

 

Really.

 

Jacob 2:24 seems to leaving stuff out.   Solomon's objectionable conduct in the OT is not that he had many wives and concubines, but that he married foreign wives and took foreign concubines and followed their Gods.  David's objectionable conduct in the OT is not that he had many wives and concubines, but that he took one too many, Bathseba, and that he killed for her.

 

You seem to forget the context of Jacob's speech.  He was not talking about marrying a foreign wife, he was not talking about being lead astray to foreign gods, he was not talking about murder.

 

Please tell us the subject of Jacob's discourse, and how this verse fits into that context.

 

 Or was it one too many, as the Savior's line came through her?

 

But, the scriptures are not legal documents filled with provisos and qualifiers.  I think Jacob 2 assumes the reader is familiar with David and Solomon.

 

Can we assume that you have actually read Jacob chapter 2.   It does not appear so.

 

I will give you the last word.

Edited September 25, 2013 by cdowis

[Freedom]

Senator, Ks fisher, Mola, JLHPROF, Bob and I all disagree with you. So you respond by saying it is because we have not read the chapter? You need to get a dictionary. This is not hyperbole.

[volgadon]

Really.

 

 

Really.

[Calm]

He was not talking about marrying a foreign wife, he was not talking about being lead astray to foreign gods

 

Where were these extra wives coming from?  It was a new colony, hardly likely to have a lot of excess women around even with the wars.

 

If they were Lamanite women (or more specifically nonNephite), the result could be very much the same as with Solomon and leading them astray to foreign gods.

 

"Abomination" doesn't have to be hyperbole just because the same action is permissible in one case and not in another.  For example, if one has consensual sex with one's wife, that is great; if one were to rape one's wife that would be abominable...with no sense of hyperbole meant either.

 

Also "abomination" could be a 'technical' term, a certain type/level of sinful behaviour and if so, it would not be hyperbolic either.

[volgadon]

Abomination is a theological/purity construct, not hyperbole.

[cdowis]

Where were these extra wives coming from?  It was a new colony, hardly likely to have a lot of excess women around even with the wars.

snip

Also "abomination" could be a 'technical' term, a certain type/level of sinful behaviour and if so, it would not be hyperbolic either.

OK, so Jacob was not REALLY talking about polygamy, but marriage with the Lamanites.

 

So, "It;'s ok to have multiple wives, but only with other Nephites".

 

Got it.

[cdowis]

I think this thread has run its course.