Polygamy, Reasons For It. And Where Is The Rest?

[DavidB]

The great debate that seems without end is why God command Joseph Smith to take plural wives as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon.

In the Book of Mormon, we can find one reason offered; "raise seed"

In the Doctrine and Covenants, we find a different reason offered:

condition for entering in God's glory - 132:4;

he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God - 132:6;

law of the Holy Priesthood - 132:28

the Lord commanded it - 132:35

So there are a small handful of reasons for polygamy. In the debate on the "why" it would seem far better to use the word of God, than to contrive natural man reasons for "why" God commanded something.

Concerning the practice of polygamy, based on Section 132, it would seem that so long as a male member of the Church read Section 132 and believed it, he then was free to enter into polygamist relationship without needing permission from the Church. Though, there is a "catch all" or disclaimer in verse 66:

"And now, as pertaining to this law, verily, verily, I say unto you, I will reveal more unto you, hereafter; therefore, let this suffice for the present. Behold, I am Alpha and Omega. Amen."

Is there another Section which covers the particulars of polygamy?

[Mark Beesley]

The great debate that seems without end is why God command Joseph Smith to take plural wives as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon.

In the Book of Mormon, we can find one reason offered; "raise seed"

In the Doctrine and Covenants, we find a different reason offered:

condition for entering in God's glory - 132:4;

he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God - 132:6;

law of the Holy Priesthood - 132:28

the Lord commanded it - 132:35

So there are a small handful of reasons for polygamy. In the debate on the "why" it would seem far better to use the word of God, than to contrive natural man reasons for "why" God commanded something.

Concerning the practice of polygamy, based on Section 132, it would seem that so long as a male member of the Church read Section 132 and believed it, he then was free to enter into polygamist relationship without needing permission from the Church. Though, there is a "catch all" or disclaimer in verse 66:

"And now, as pertaining to this law, verily, verily, I say unto you, I will reveal more unto you, hereafter; therefore, let this suffice for the present. Behold, I am Alpha and Omega. Amen."

Is there another Section which covers the particulars of polygamy?

Section 132 is primarily about the New and Everlasting Covenant of Marriage, i.e. eternal marriage. Section 132 explains the sealing power of the Priesthood. That revelation is a preface to the later revelation related to plural marriage. But I don't find plural marriage to be the main focus of the section, and the "reasons" you proffer for the latter-day command of plural marriage relate not to plural marriage but to eternal marriage. The only reason given in Section 132 for plural marriage relates specifically to the Abrahamic covenant, i.e. raising up seed unto the Lord. Yes, you are correct that that precise verbiage is not used, but the context makes it clear in, of course, my opinion.

[Glenn101]

The great debate that seems without end is why God command Joseph Smith to take plural wives as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon.

In the Book of Mormon, we can find one reason offered; "raise seed"

In the Doctrine and Covenants, we find a different reason offered:

condition for entering in God's glory - 132:4;

he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God - 132:6;

law of the Holy Priesthood - 132:28

the Lord commanded it - 132:35

So there are a small handful of reasons for polygamy. In the debate on the "why" it would seem far better to use the word of God, than to contrive natural man reasons for "why" God commanded something.

Concerning the practice of polygamy, based on Section 132, it would seem that so long as a male member of the Church read Section 132 and believed it, he then was free to enter into polygamist relationship without needing permission from the Church. Though, there is a "catch all" or disclaimer in verse 66:

"And now, as pertaining to this law, verily, verily, I say unto you, I will reveal more unto you, hereafter; therefore, let this suffice for the present. Behold, I am Alpha and Omega. Amen."

Is there another Section which covers the particulars of polygamy?

Section 32 in totality is about the New and Everlasting Covenant. Plural wives are part of that covenant, but those wives must be given unto a man by the Lord. Read verses 37 through 39. Abraham received his wives directly from the Lord, since he was the Prophet of his dispensation. David received his wives through Nathan the prophet. Anyone who would receive additional wives in the time period when polygamy was practiced was supposed to do so with the approbation of the Lord through the current prophet, if I am reading the text correctly.

Polygamy was instituted in this dispensation, at least partly, because it was part of the restitution of all things. The Law of Consecration was also part of the restitution of all things, and it, like polygamy, is currently not practiced currently. I predict with my untested and uncertain powers of prophecy that the Law of Consecration will be practiced during the Melinnium. I am more hesitant to make any sort of prediction about polygamy.

But I have a deceased wife to whom I was sealed prior to her death, and another wife to whom I have been sealed. That wouldplace me in a rather awkward situation if we all were to come forth in the first resurrection.

Maybe my comments are clear as mud???

Glenn

[DavidB]

Section 132 is primarily about the New and Everlasting Covenant of Marriage, i.e. eternal marriage. Section 132 explains the sealing power of the Priesthood. That revelation is a preface to the later revelation related to plural marriage. But I don't find plural marriage to be the main focus of the section, and the "reasons" you proffer for the latter-day command of plural marriage relate not to plural marriage but to eternal marriage. The only reason given in Section 132 for plural marriage relates specifically to the Abrahamic covenant, i.e. raising up seed unto the Lord. Yes, you are correct that that precise verbiage is not used, but the context makes it clear in, of course, my opinion.

Mark, 132:4 is about "AN new and everlasting covenant" not "the".

That revelation is a preface to the later revelation related to plural marriage. But I don't find plural marriage to be the main focus of the section, and the "reasons" you proffer for the latter-day command of plural marriage relate not to plural marriage but to eternal marriage.

132:28 (will give unto thee the Law of My Holy Priesthood) sets the stage for discussing of Abraham's polygamy, so verse 28 is very clear in stating that polygamy is the Law of the Priesthood.

132:35, is very clear that the Lord commanded Abraham's polygamy.

verse 28 and 35 are clear on the topic of polygamy/purality of wives.

and it is clear that from verse 28 - 66 the focus is polygamy/plurality of wives.

Edited September 10, 2012 by DavidB

[CV75]

Mark, 132:4 is about "AN new and everlasting covenant" not "the".

132:28 (will give unto thee the Law of My Holy Priesthood) sets the stage for discussing of Abraham's polygamy, so verse 28 is very clear in stating that polygamy is the Law of the Priesthood.

132:35, is very clear that the Lord commanded Abraham's polygamy.

verse 28 and 35 are clear on the topic of polygamy/purality of wives.

and it is clear that from verse 28 - 66 the focus is polygamy/plurality of wives.

I would say the law of God’s Holy Priesthood as laid out in verses 28 and 29 (where just as Abraham is, we can be) is that we receive all things, whatsoever we receive, by revelation and commandment, by the Lord’s word, and thus may enter into our exaltation and sit upon our thrones. The other verses only show that Abraham’s polygamy was an outgrowth of what he was commanded to do, or commanded under this law, but is not the defining element of the law in and of itself.

[Glenn101]

132:28 (will give unto thee the Law of My Holy Priesthood) sets the stage for discussing of Abraham's polygamy, so verse 28 is very clear in stating that polygamy is the Law of the Priesthood.

132:35, is very clear that the Lord commanded Abraham's polygamy.

verse 28 and 35 are clear on the topic of polygamy/purality of wives.

and it is clear that from verse 28 - 66 the focus is polygamy/plurality of wives.

DavidB:

Truly polygamy is part of the new and everlasting covenant, but it is not all of it.

Doctrine and Covenants 131:

1 In the celestial glory there are three heavens or degrees;

2 And in order to obtain the highest, a man must enter into this border of the priesthood [meaning the new and deverlasting covenant of marriage];

3 And if he does not, he cannot obtain it.

4 He may enter into the other, but that is the end of his kingdom; he cannot have an increase.

Jesus told the Nephites that they were of the house of Israel and heirs to the covenant that He had made with Abraham.

3 Nephi 20:25 And behold, ye are the children of the prophets; and ye are of the house of Israel; and ye are of the covenant which the Father made with your fathers, saying unto Abraham: And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed.

Yet, the Nephites were explicitly commanded to have only one wife.

Jacob 2:27 Wherefore, my brethren, hear me, and hearken to the word of the Lord: For there shall not any man among you have save it be one wife; and concubines he shall have none;

As you have already pointed out, polygamy is to be practiced only when commanded. The Nephites were commanded not to practice polygamy. Yet they were told that they were of the covenant of Abraham. If polygamy is a requirement of the New and Everlasting Covenant of marriage, that would put the Nephites in a paradoxical position being cut off from the highest degree in the Celestial Kingdom as well as all of the members of the church who have never entered into that particular set of circumstances.

Glenn

[DavidB]

As you state, The Nephites not having polygamy despite it being a Law of God, is no different than the Church today who do not practice polygamy.

But Section 132:28 is clear that it is a Law of Priesthood.

Edited September 11, 2012 by DavidB

[Carborendum]

Section 132 starts by mentioning the plurality of wives. But the Lord then essentially says, "Let me start at the beginning, so you'll be sure to understand."

Mawwiage. That bwessed ... A Hem. Sorry.

Anyway, He goes into marriage both earthly and celestial. Until verse 34 he is NOT talking about plural marriage. He is just talking about a temple sealed marriage in general, especially touching on the differences between earthly vs celestial marriages. So forget about applying verses 4, 6, & 28 to plural marriage. It's only about the temple sealing (of any kind)--that which produces eternal families.

What is said in verse 34? "Because this was the law." (emphasis added).

Then verse 35 gives further justification FOR ABRAHAM. "I, the Lord, commanded it". Thus, when the Lord commands it. He commanded it in Abraham's time. Thus it was ok. He commanded it earlier in this dispensation. Thus it was ok. Today He does NOT command it. So we don't.

Further evidence of the "only do it when commanded" idea is given in 36: "Abraham was commanded to offer his son Isaac; nevertheless, it was written: Thou shalt not kill." In other words, there are commandments that are common that cover most circumstances, but others that are special circumstances. By parallel structure, we see that the practice of polygamy is a special circumstance. Thus we no longer practice it on earth. The eternal nature of the continued practice is also a special circumstance.

Again, the BoM also supports the "special circumstance" notion: "For if I will...raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things." In other words, DON'T DO THIS UNLESS I SPECIFICALLY COMMAND IT.

And as for "it would seem...he then was free to enter into polygamist relationship without needing permission from the Church." WRONG. Not only did you miss the special dispensation (permission) requirement, you missed verse 34:

"And if her husband be with another woman, and he was under a vow, he hath broken his vow and hath committed adultery."

No, we don't practice it today. And for those of you who are bent on the notion of the widowers remarrying in the temple, I disagree with the characterization. Yes, I understand the doctrine. Yes, I've heard all your arguments. I just disagree with the characterization.

[Calm]

Mawwiage. That bwessed ... A Hem. Sorry.

You are forgiven. It is an impulse that most give into now and again, at least in thought if not in deed.

[Calm]

No, we don't practice it today. And for those of you who are bent on the notion of the widowers remarrying in the temple, I disagree with the characterization. Yes, I understand the doctrine. Yes, I've heard all your arguments. I just disagree with the characterization.

For some reason your comments made me wonder if the Law of Circumcision will continue for those it was given to as an eternal commandment into the next life, IOW will men's bodies be circumcised or not.....hmmm......

[DavidB]

Verse 28 and verse 61 are both speaking of polygamy/plural marriage as law of the Priesthood. Verse 61 even provides the example.of marrying a virgin and she consents to her husband marrying another virgin the husband is justified.

As for not needing permission from the Church se verse 3 if the law is.revealed to you must obey.

Edited September 11, 2012 by DavidB

[Tacenda]

Open your eyes, D&C 132 is a commandment to live polygamy. It's plain to see. Only those that do will reach the highest level in the kingdom.

[KevinG]

Open your eyes, D&C 132 is a commandment to live polygamy. It's plain to see. Only those that do will reach the highest level in the kingdom.

In the sense that any time we are commanded by God to do something we must obey to receive the blessings attached that is true, but for those who were not called to practice the principle (every member of the church today) they are not under the same obligation.

[Brother Ray]

The great debate that seems without end is why God command Joseph Smith to take plural wives as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon.

In the Book of Mormon, we can find one reason offered; "raise seed"

In the Doctrine and Covenants, we find a different reason offered:

condition for entering in God's glory - 132:4;

he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God - 132:6;

law of the Holy Priesthood - 132:28

the Lord commanded it - 132:35

So there are a small handful of reasons for polygamy. In the debate on the "why" it would seem far better to use the word of God, than to contrive natural man reasons for "why" God commanded something.

Concerning the practice of polygamy, based on Section 132, it would seem that so long as a male member of the Church read Section 132 and believed it, he then was free to enter into polygamist relationship without needing permission from the Church. Though, there is a "catch all" or disclaimer in verse 66:

"And now, as pertaining to this law, verily, verily, I say unto you, I will reveal more unto you, hereafter; therefore, let this suffice for the present. Behold, I am Alpha and Omega. Amen."

Is there another Section which covers the particulars of polygamy?

I heard this years ago, when I first joined the Church. At that time there were many mopre female members then male members. Polgamy was so they would have a helpmate and a Priesthood holder in their home. It also assured that they could get married in the Temple. A man had to proove his worthiness before he could take more than one wife.

Here's something I think few people know. Polygamy ended because of a revelation, from Heavenly Father., that Mormons should obey the laws of the land.

Had it not been for that revelation, we might still be practicing polygamy today.

[Calm]

Had it not been for that revelation, we might still be practicing polygamy today.

No, we wouldn't because that revelation indicated the Church would be destroyed if they continued to practice plural marriage which is why the Lord released them from that commandment.

Oops, I may have overstated that, perhaps I equated loss of the temples with the loss of the Church due to the importance templework has in my view or maybe it was the idea of the men in prison...how could the Church continue for very long under that condition...hmm:

The Lord showed me by vision and revelation exactly what would take place if we did not stop this practice. If we had not stopped it, you would have had no use for … any of the men in this temple at Logan; for all ordinances would be stopped throughout the land of Zion. Confusion would reign throughout Israel, and many men would be made prisoners. This trouble would have come upon the whole Church, and we should have been compelled to stop the practice. Now, the question is, whether it should be stopped in this manner, or in the way the Lord has manifested to us, and leave our Prophets and Apostles and fathers free men, and the temples in the hands of the people, so that the dead may be redeemed. A large number has already been delivered from the prison house in the spirit world by this people, and shall the work go on or stop? This is the question I lay before the Latter-day Saints. You have to judge for yourselves. I want you to answer it for yourselves. I shall not answer it; but I say to you that that is exactly the condition we as a people would have been in had we not taken the course we have.

Edited September 14, 2012 by calmoriah

[thesometimesaint]

Open your eyes, D&C 132 is a commandment to live polygamy. It's plain to see. Only those that do will reach the highest level in the kingdom.

UHHH No. No one to whom that the commandment wasn't given need follow it.

Edited September 14, 2012 by thesometimesaint

[Tacenda]

UHHH No. No one to whom that the commandment wasn't given need follow it.

Was it the case when, I believe, BY said no man will go the the highest level unless he lives it. I guess God is a changing God then.

[DavidB]

Section 132 is quite clear that polygamy/plurality of wives with sexual relationships is a law of the Holy Priesthood.

The Church was not commanded to cease the practice, the Church was given the choice to continue or cease the practice, the membership made the choice to cease the practice in the United States, later the Church ceased the practice world wide.

[Calm]

Was it the case when, I believe, BY said no man will go the the highest level unless he lives it. I guess God is a changing God then.

CFR this is what he actually said. My memory says you are leaving off part of the quote that says they had to accept it as a commandment to those who did live it, but not live it personally. Much like we now accept circumcision as a commandment to the Jews, but don't see any need to live it ourselves.

[Tacenda]

CFR this is what he actually said. My memory says you are leaving off part of the quote that says they had to accept it as a commandment to those who did live it, but not live it personally. Much like we now accept circumcision as a commandment to the Jews, but don't see any need to live it ourselves.

I wasn't near a computer or reference so I'll check that out.

[KevinG]

Was it the case when, I believe, BY said no man will go the the highest level unless he lives it. I guess God is a changing God then.

CFR this is what he actually said. My memory says you are leaving off part of the quote that says they had to accept it as a commandment to those who did live it, but not live it personally. Much like we now accept circumcision as a commandment to the Jews, but don't see any need to live it ourselves.

I wasn't near a computer or reference so I'll check that out.

You need better sources...

http://en.fairmormon.org/Mormonism_and_polygamy/Brigham_Young_said_that_the_only_men_who_become_gods_are_those_that_practice_polygamy

"...if you desire with all your hearts to obtain the blessings which Abraham obtained, you will be polygamists at least in your faith, or you will come short of enjoying the salvation and the glory which Abraham has obtained." - Brigham Young to an audience who were commanded to live the principle.

[Brother Ray]

No, we wouldn't because that revelation indicated the Church would be destroyed if they continued to practice plural marriage which is why the Lord released them from that commandment.

Oops, I may have overstated that, perhaps I equated loss of the temples with the loss of the Church due to the importance templework has in my view or maybe it was the idea of the men in prison...how could the Church continue for very long under that condition...hmm:

I always thought it to mean that, we, as a chuirch would obey the word of God before we would obey the laws of the land. Heavenly Father knew all the problems it would cause for the saints, if we did not obey the law, and that is why he stopped the practice of Polygamy..

.

[BCSpace]

The great debate that seems without end is why God command Joseph Smith to take plural wives as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon.

In the Book of Mormon, we can find one reason offered; "raise seed"

In the Doctrine and Covenants, we find a different reason offered:

condition for entering in God's glory - 132:4;

he that receiveth a fulness thereof must and shall abide the law, or he shall be damned, saith the Lord God - 132:6;

law of the Holy Priesthood - 132:28

the Lord commanded it - 132:35

So there are a small handful of reasons for polygamy. In the debate on the "why" it would seem far better to use the word of God, than to contrive natural man reasons for "why" God commanded something.

Sure. In 2 Samuel 12:7-9 it basically says if David had wanted more, he should have asked instead of killing Uriah and taking his wife. So what reason does this imply?

[MormonMason]

Open your eyes, D&C 132 is a commandment to live polygamy. It's plain to see. Only those that do will reach the highest level in the kingdom.

It was a commandment only when you were called by the President of the Church to do so. Otherwise, as some of these Presidents and Apostles in the Church also taught, a man with only one wife also could be exalted in the celestial kingdom.

Section 132 is a composite revelation made up of two or possibly even three parts. Everything up to verse 27 speaks of only one wife using the singular and the indefinite article. From verse 28 onward, the subject is the law of the priesthood and plural marriage.

There are several composite revelations in the Doctrine and Covenants. These often only can be known by comparing manuscripts, journals and previous publications of the revelations. Some are worded as though fitted together in this manner. Others are not but the evidence is in the historical sources.

[MormonMason]

Was it the case when, I believe, BY said no man will go the the highest level unless he lives it. I guess God is a changing God then.

God can change his mind and/or alter parameters without being a changeable God. Anyone who has read his/her Bible carefully enough knows that.