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Mark 16:16 of the 'Saved' Understanding the Definition


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On 1/29/2020 at 8:32 PM, Calm said:

Why would someone who has been baptized have to pay any penalty?

The answer to your question may be discovered by pondering the reason why anyone who has paid the penalty for his sins would also need to be washed by the cleansing power of Christ’s atonement?

Posted

I think Christ's atonement and therefore baptism is about much, much more than just paying a penalty, it is that and being transformed emotionally and mentally into someone who has no desire and probably can't even feel as they once did when they were willing to sin.

I don't see that change of being occurring with paying the penalty themselves.

So the Atonement lacks nothing involved in self penalty paying while the reverse cannot be claimed, imo.

Posted
On 1/30/2020 at 8:37 AM, pogi said:

From his own mouth:

No penalty demanded by justice is required to be suffered by us as a part of repentance.  Why should we suffer for what Christ already paid for?  That is nonsense!  

It seems no one so far is even considering the effects of the washing and annointing which are different for men and women.

I am not going to get into that again here though because someone will call me sexist, and she never posts on anything but sexism. Gosh it gets old.

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