Freedom Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 We are all familiar with 2 Timothy 3:16 which states 'All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"The evangelical community translates this as 'All scriptures is God Breathed and is..."The argument is that the word theopneustos, which apparently translates as 'God-breathed, inspired by God, due to the inspiration of'. The challenge is, I cannot find any supporting evidence other than what is said on evangelical websites. In fact, I cannot find a clear definition of what 'god breathed' means. Fundamentalists take this notion a step further by claiming that it was written word for word as God dictated it. I suppose we would have to analyse what it means to 'breath' something in order to know what 'god breathed' could mean. Any thoughts?
thesometimesaint Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 I think it means that the Bible is the only literally true and inherently infallible word of God.
Vance Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 God breathed?2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:The Greek word is "theopneustos"."Theo" meaning God and "pneustos" a variant of the word "pneuma" or spirit (as in 1 Cor 2:11) and it literally means spirited.The word “breathed” in John 20:22 is translated from the Greek word "emphusaO" literally meaning 'He-IN-INFLATES'.If you look at 2 Tim 3:16 in different English versions of the Bible you find;American Standard Version = "inspired of God"Darby Translation = "divinely inspired"Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition = "inspired of God"Holman Christian Standard Bible = "inspired by God"King James Version = "inspiration of God"American King James Version = "inspiration of God"Webster’s Bible Translation = "inspiration of God"New American Standard Bible = "inspired by God"New Century Version = "inspired by God"New King James Version = "inspiration of God"New Living Translation = "inspired by God"English Revised Version = "inspired of God"Wycliffe New Testament = "inspired of God"Contemporary English Version = "God's Word"21st Century King James Version = "inspiration of God"GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995) = "inspired by God"Weymouth New Testament = "inspired by God"New World Translation = "inspired of God"New Jerusalem Bible = "inspired by God"Are all of those translations “infallible” or “inerrant”? 1
Popular Post ERMD Posted November 27, 2012 Popular Post Posted November 27, 2012 If God breathed something, then he must have lungs. 5
thesometimesaint Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 God breathed?2 Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:The Greek word is "theopneustos"."Theo" meaning God and "pneustos" a variant of the word "pneuma" or spirit (as in 1 Cor 2:11) and it literally means spirited.The word “breathed” in John 20:22 is translated from the Greek word "emphusaO" literally meaning 'He-IN-INFLATES'.If you look at 2 Tim 3:16 in different English versions of the Bible you find;American Standard Version = "inspired of God"Darby Translation = "divinely inspired"Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition = "inspired of God"Holman Christian Standard Bible = "inspired by God"King James Version = "inspiration of God"American King James Version = "inspiration of God"Webster’s Bible Translation = "inspiration of God"New American Standard Bible = "inspired by God"New Century Version = "inspired by God"New King James Version = "inspiration of God"New Living Translation = "inspired by God"English Revised Version = "inspired of God"Wycliffe New Testament = "inspired of God"Contemporary English Version = "God's Word"21st Century King James Version = "inspiration of God"GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995) = "inspired by God"Weymouth New Testament = "inspired by God"New World Translation = "inspired of God"New Jerusalem Bible = "inspired by God"Are all of those translations “infallible” or “inerrant”?I would imagine that most would say yes to both. However there are KJV only believers.
Bill “Papa” Lee Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 I think it means that the Bible is the only literally true and inherently infallible word of God.What of the "lost books"?
Bill “Papa” Lee Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 I would imagine that most would say yes to both. However there are KJV only believers.I believe the KJV, although I doubt you are speaking of people like me. The crowd of which you speak believe every word is literal.
mathonihah Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 We are all familiar with 2 Timothy 3:16 which states 'All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"The evangelical community translates this as 'All scriptures is God Breathed and is..."The argument is that the word theopneustos, which apparently translates as 'God-breathed, inspired by God, due to the inspiration of'. The challenge is, I cannot find any supporting evidence other than what is said on evangelical websites. In fact, I cannot find a clear definition of what 'god breathed' means. Fundamentalists take this notion a step further by claiming that it was written word for word as God dictated it. I suppose we would have to analyse what it means to 'breath' something in order to know what 'god breathed' could mean. Any thoughts? I don't think that how you interpret that scripture depends much on how you translate it. Whichever way it is translated, it can be interpreted rigidly to mean infallible, or less rigidly. Infallibility also means different things to different people. To some people infallible means that it can't have a spelling mistake in it. To others it may mean that it is doctrinally infallible.
Freedom Posted November 27, 2012 Author Posted November 27, 2012 But where does this notion of 'God Breathed' come from? I cannot find any history on when this expression started or how they justify it in this verse. What does Paul mean when he states that “all scripture is given by inspiration of God?” Henry Alford, in his Greek New Testament, said, “θεόπνευστος ‘divinitus inspirata,’ Vulg., is an expression and idea connected with πνεῦμa (properly breath), the power of the divine Spirit being conceived of as a breath of life: the word thus amounts to ‘inspired,’ ‘breathed through,’ ‘full of the Spirit.’ 1 It is certainly true that the Scriptures are full of the Spirit, and breathed through. Unfortunately, the definition is somewhat vague. We don’t know if Alford means that the Scriptures are full of the Spirit in the sense that they are of Divine origin, or if he means it in the sense that they are somehow full of the Spirit so that those who read them get benefit even if they are not necessarily of Divine origin. Obviously that distinction is an important one.http://pastoralmusings.com/notes-on-2timothy-316-45theopneustos-and-the-word-of-god/
Thunderfire Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 In fact, I cannot find a clear definition of what 'god breathed' means. Fundamentalists take this notion a step further by claiming that it was written word for word as God dictated it. I suppose we would have to analyse what it means to 'breath' something in order to know what 'god breathed' could mean. Any thoughts? In my opinion, to speak of God breathing scripture denotes many layers of meaning:1) When you speak words you are technically "breathing" (or exhaling your breath) as you speak the words. For me, this is a most basic connotation of the phrase. It came from within God as he spoke the words to his prophets.2) It can also denote something very personal to you where you put your innermost soul into those words spoken. God breathed can denote something of greater importance being first birthed in passion and desire for his children.3) We can also claim the passage in Genesis where God breathed life into Adam. Meaning, the breath of God brings life which can bring life into the words he has spoken.4) Personally, I like the phrase God breathed and the imagery it creates regarding the personal nature scripture is from God. The feelings of his heart made known! Just my thoughts... 1
thesometimesaint Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 What of the "lost books"?I would imagine their answer would be "Since they aren't in the Bible they can't be the word of God".
Vance Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 But where does this notion of 'God Breathed' come from?It is simply the evangelicals attempting to make scripture more "inerrant" than they are. I cannot find any history on when this expression started or how they justify it in this verse.It came about when evangelicals began to produce their "own" translations.
pogi Posted November 27, 2012 Posted November 27, 2012 (edited) We are all familiar with 2 Timothy 3:16 which states 'All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"The evangelical community translates this as 'All scriptures is God Breathed and is..."Inspiration literally means the drawing in of breath. I found this online : Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' (akin to pneo, 'to breathe, blow'); also 'breath'; then, especially 'the spirit,' which, like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful." It is used 385 times in the King James Version and is usually translated "Spirit" or "spirit." Think of the word pneumonia, dealing with the lungs and breathing, It's root is surely pneuma.So, it is interesting that the word "pneuma" is translated to english in this case as inspiration, when it would be more accurately translated as expiration. You have the word "inspiration", meaning to inhale, and the word pneuma meaning to blow, or exhale. I can see how they would translate it "God breathed".All scripture is given by the expiration (exhalation) of God (or by the blowing or giving of God's spirit which gives life). Think of the symbology of the creation. God gave, or blew, the breath of life into Adam. Adam inspired or inhaled God's breath or spirit, giving him life. That is how revelation works, God breathes out, we breath in. Communion with God through prayer is shared breath (spirit) with God, we breath out, God breathes in, God breathes out, we breathe in. I practice meditative prayer daily, It is interesting to note how meditation is often centered around the breath (very symbolic). Edited November 27, 2012 by pogi 1
Freedom Posted November 28, 2012 Author Posted November 28, 2012 Inspiration literally means the drawing in of breath. I found this online : Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' (akin to pneo, 'to breathe, blow'); also 'breath'; then, especially 'the spirit,' which, like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful." It is used 385 times in the King James Version and is usually translated "Spirit" or "spirit." Think of the word pneumonia, dealing with the lungs and breathing, It's root is surely pneuma.So, it is interesting that the word "pneuma" is translated to english in this case as inspiration, when it would be more accurately translated as expiration. You have the word "inspiration", meaning to inhale, and the word pneuma meaning to blow, or exhale. I can see how they would translate it "God breathed".All scripture is given by the expiration (exhalation) of God (or by the blowing or giving of God's spirit which gives life). Think of the symbology of the creation. God gave, or blew, the breath of life into Adam. Adam inspired or inhaled God's breath or spirit, giving him life. That is how revelation works, God breathes out, we breath in. Communion with God through prayer is shared breath (spirit) with God, we breath out, God breathes in, God breathes out, we breathe in. I practice meditative prayer daily, It is interesting to note how meditation is often centered around the breath (very symbolic).Interesting, thanks for sharing this.
Freedom Posted November 28, 2012 Author Posted November 28, 2012 There is the related argument that the word of God does not pass away, and since the bible is the word of God, any references to the word of God in the bible also refers to the bible itself. Of course, the problem with this argument is that the bible is not the word of God, rather it is a record of men's perception of the word of God.
The Nehor Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 I think it means that the Bible is the only literally true and inherently infallible word of God.Sadly no one who says they believe this follows through in the belief or the world would be a much more interesting place.Monastic orders would be much more the norm. A lot of people would be handless and eyeless. Slavery would be alive and well. There would be revolutions to install a Caesar so we can follow the command to give him his due. There would be no such thing as a rich Christian. You could punch Christians in the face without any possibility of retribution. Intensive studies would. Be done on how to turn people into a kind of human/sheep hybrid so they can sit at the right hand of God unlike those goatmen who are going to hell.I would not mind visiting such a place for giggles but I do not think I would want to live there.
mathonihah Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 I don't think that how you interpret that scripture depends much on how you translate it. Whichever way it is translated, it can be interpreted rigidly to mean infallible, or less rigidly. Infallibility also means different things to different people. To some people infallible means that it can't have a spelling mistake in it. To others it may mean that it is doctrinally infallible.It is just an alternative translation. As I said, I don't think how understand it depends too much on how you translate it. In either case it can be understood to mean infallible or not, depending on your point ov view. Evangelicals like to understand it to mean infallible, whichever way it is translated. Others may not be so inclined.
mathonihah Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 There is the related argument that the word of God does not pass away, and since the bible is the word of God, any references to the word of God in the bible also refers to the bible itself. Of course, the problem with this argument is that the bible is not the word of God, rather it is a record of men's perception of the word of God.There is nothing in the Bible itself that confirms that; and there are passages in in modern scripture that appear to contradict it, such as this from D&C 18:33 And I, Jesus Christ, your Lord and your God, have spoken it.34 These awords are not of men nor of man, but of me; wherefore, you shall testify they are of me and not of man;35 For it is my avoice which speaketh them unto you; for they are given by my Spirit unto you, and by my power you can read them one to another; and save it were by my power you could not have them;36 Wherefore, you can atestify that you have bheard my voice, and know my words.Or the following from section 67:6 Now, seek ye out of the Book of Commandments, even the least that is among them, and appoint him that is the most awise among you;7 Or, if there be any among you that shall make one alike unto it, then ye are justified in saying that ye do not know that they are true;8 But if ye cannot make one like unto it, ye are under condemnation if ye do not abear record that they are true.9 For ye know that there is no unrighteousness in them, and that which is arighteous cometh down from above, from the Father of blights.Or this from section 63:64 Remember that that which cometh from above is sacred, and must be spoken with care, and by constraint of the Spirit; and in this there is no condemnation, and ye receive the Spirit through prayer; wherefore, without this there remaineth condemnation.These do not make a distinction between the word of God, and "men's perception of the word of God". It is all the same. Assuming that all scripture is composed in the same way, then we must conclude that what is said of the D&C is equally applicable to other scriptures, including the Bible.
mathonihah Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 Sadly no one who says they believe this follows through in the belief or the world would be a much more interesting place.Monastic orders would be much more the norm. A lot of people would be handless and eyeless. Slavery would be alive and well. There would be revolutions to install a Caesar so we can follow the command to give him his due. There would be no such thing as a rich Christian. You could punch Christians in the face without any possibility of retribution. Intensive studies would. Be done on how to turn people into a kind of human/sheep hybrid so they can sit at the right hand of God unlike those goatmen who are going to hell.I would not mind visiting such a place for giggles but I do not think I would want to live there.That sounds like an awful lot of scripture misinterpretation to me!
The Nehor Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 That sounds like an awful lot of scripture misinterpretation to me! No, it is literalism. If you want to take it literally then scripture must have no metaphor.Or we can accept that reading alone is an interpretation and give up the literal nonsense. It is also why I disagree with the metaphor often used in the church that the Book of Mormon and the Bible act as two nails to make our understanding pure. I have heard far too many people try to use Book of Mormon examples to justify things it teaches against to believe that they alone put to rest disagreement. Only the Holy Ghost can do that.
canard78 Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 There is the related argument that the word of God does not pass away, and since the bible is the word of God, any references to the word of God in the bible also refers to the bible itself. Of course, the problem with this argument is that the bible is not the word of God, rather it is a record of men's perception of the word of God.I like the way you phrase this. Would you say the same of the BoM. Recorded by men, translated (to the best of his ability) by a man. I sometimes wonder why our 8th Article of Faith doesn't say:We believe the Bible to be the word of God as far as it is translated correctly; we also believe the Book of Mormon to be the word of God as far as it is translated correctly.If we don't believe God breathed for the BoM either, and accept Mormon's assertion that the errors within are the errors of men... Then it's not perfect. I still love the words I read in it. Not God's Breath... Another "record of men's perception of the word of God?" The "most correct" one... But not a floating quill.
Jude2 Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 Inspiration literally means the drawing in of breath. I found this online : Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' (akin to pneo, 'to breathe, blow'); also 'breath'; then, especially 'the spirit,' which, like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful." It is used 385 times in the King James Version and is usually translated "Spirit" or "spirit." The problem with that interpretation is that it’s built on dark-age science. The wind is not immaterial nor is the Spirit.
Vance Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 (edited) I found this online : Pneuma primarily denotes 'the wind' (akin to pneo, 'to breathe, blow'); also 'breath'; then, especially 'the spirit,' which, like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful."Interesting quote.So, now that we know that wind and breath ARE MATERIAL, when will they go back and revisit their false assumption that "spirit" and God are immaterial? Edited November 28, 2012 by Vance
Freedom Posted November 28, 2012 Author Posted November 28, 2012 There is nothing in the Bible itself that confirms that; and there are passages in in modern scripture that appear to contradict it, such as this from D&C 18:33 And I, Jesus Christ, your Lord and your God, have spoken it.34 These awords are not of men nor of man, but of me; wherefore, you shall testify they are of me and not of man;35 For it is my avoice which speaketh them unto you; for they are given by my Spirit unto you, and by my power you can read them one to another; and save it were by my power you could not have them;36 Wherefore, you can atestify that you have bheard my voice, and know my words.Or the following from section 67:6 Now, seek ye out of the Book of Commandments, even the least that is among them, and appoint him that is the most awise among you;7 Or, if there be any among you that shall make one alike unto it, then ye are justified in saying that ye do not know that they are true;8 But if ye cannot make one like unto it, ye are under condemnation if ye do not abear record that they are true.9 For ye know that there is no unrighteousness in them, and that which is arighteous cometh down from above, from the Father of blights.Or this from section 63:64 Remember that that which cometh from above is sacred, and must be spoken with care, and by constraint of the Spirit; and in this there is no condemnation, and ye receive the Spirit through prayer; wherefore, without this there remaineth condemnation.These do not make a distinction between the word of God, and "men's perception of the word of God". It is all the same. Assuming that all scripture is composed in the same way, then we must conclude that what is said of the D&C is equally applicable to other scriptures, including the Bible.I do not see in these verses evidence that the written word is a perfect rendition of Gods spoken word. It is a written record of his word. If I had a copy of your personal journal, I would have your written perception of events in your life. But it moves further away when you consider that few if any of the books in the bible claim to be scripture. We, looking back, refer to them as scripture out of tradition, but there is no evidence that there were intended as such when written.
Damien the Leper Posted November 28, 2012 Posted November 28, 2012 If God breathed something, then he must have lungs.How wonderfully literal of you...but that was good.
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