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Priesthood Ordinances Prior To Elijah'S Visit


Duncan

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As we know the Priesthood was restored in 1829 and Elijah restored the sealing power on April 3, 1836 does that mean any ordinances like baptism or conferral of priesthood and ordaining to office done prior to 1836 weren't sealed in heaven? Why was one restoration done without the other? oh nuts, Mods can you fix the title to have a smaller case "s" please and thank you with a cherry on top!

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I believe the sealing power that Elijah restored is understood to be the sealing of husbands to wives and parents to children.

D&C 110

13 After this vision had closed, another great and glorious vision burst upon us; for Elijah the prophet, who was taken to heaven without tasting death, stood before us, and said:

14 Behold, the time has fully come, which was spoken of by the mouth of Malachi—testifying that he [Elijah] should be sent, before the great and dreadful day of the Lord come—

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I believe the sealing power that Elijah restored is understood to be the sealing of husbands to wives and parents to children.

D&C 110

13 After this vision had closed, another great and glorious vision burst upon us; for Elijah the prophet, who was taken to heaven without tasting death, stood before us, and said:

14 Behold, the time has fully come, which was spoken of by the mouth of Malachi—testifying that he [Elijah] should be sent, before the great and dreadful day of the Lord come—

thanks! I am wondering what sealed the ordinances prior to 1836 in heaven, was it something else and if it was then what use was Elijah coming?

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Priesthood ordinances are sealed by virtue of the Priesthood. Elijah restored the keys that are necessary for what we refer to today as temple sealing (as explained above). That key is today held by the President of the Church and delegated to temple sealers.

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Priesthood ordinances are sealed by virtue of the Priesthood. Elijah restored the keys that are necessary for what we refer to today as temple sealing (as explained above). That key is today held by the President of the Church and delegated to temple sealers.

why would there be a difference?

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A difference in what? I'm not sure I exactly understand your question.

If someone was baptized in say 1831 and it won't have any effect in heaven if it isn't recognized in heaven and the same thing with a temple sealing done say in 1878 in the St. George Temple and that sealing wouldn't have any effect in heaven if it wasn't sealed in heaven and I wonder why their seems to be two ways to make something have any effect in heaven, one being the sealing power of Elijah and the other the virtue of the Priesthood

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The sealing power of Elijah is part of the priesthood. All powers and authorities granted by God to us on earth are part of the priesthood.

so if you were baptized in 1831 you were sealed by the virtue of the Priesthood and then in the late 1870's someone was sealed in the Temple I don't understand why there would be a difference in sealing power, shouldn't it be all the same? Like if your baptims is sealed in heaven why isn't that same sealing power good enough to seal a marriage? Why didn't Elijah come then in 1829?

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I think you are using the term seal in a way that is different than that typicaly used in the LDS Church. If you are baptized by the proper authority (the priesthood) then that baptism is sealed (as I believe you are using the word) in heaven.

When a husband and wife are sealed in the temple it means that that relationship may continue into the eternities. It is performed by virtue of the priesthood and is called a sealing ordinance. By being performed in the temple and by the proper authority (a priesthood holder who has been set apart to perform sealing ordinances) then it is sealed in heaven as well.

Elijah's return to restore the keys of the sealing power is what restored sealing ordinances to the earth. The keys to the ordinance of baptism had already been restored when John the Baptist bestowed the Aaronic Priesthood on Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdry. After this time all baptisms performed by this authority where recognized (sealed as you have put it) in heaven.

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I think you are using the term seal in a way that is different than that typicaly used in the LDS Church. If you are baptized by the proper authority (the priesthood) then that baptism is sealed (as I believe you are using the word) in heaven.

When a husband and wife are sealed in the temple it means that that relationship may continue into the eternities. It is performed by virtue of the priesthood and is called a sealing ordinance. By being performed in the temple and by the proper authority (a priesthood holder who has been set apart to perform sealing ordinances) then it is sealed in heaven as well.

Elijah's return to restore the keys of the sealing power is what restored sealing ordinances to the earth. The keys to the ordinance of baptism had already been restored when John the Baptist bestowed the Aaronic Priesthood on Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdry. After this time all baptisms performed by this authority where recognized (sealed as you have put it) in heaven.

It seems then that Elijah's return restored one aspect then of the larger "thing" of sealing, would that be correct to say?

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As we know the Priesthood was restored in 1829 and Elijah restored the sealing power on April 3, 1836 does that mean any ordinances like baptism or conferral of priesthood and ordaining to office done prior to 1836 weren't sealed in heaven? Why was one restoration done without the other?

As others have pointed out, baptisms and confirmations aren't "sealings". Neither are the sacrament, blessings of healing, and dedicating graves.

But that doesn't mean there aren't interesting questions to be asked about the chronology...

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As others have pointed out, baptisms and confirmations aren't "sealings". Neither are the sacrament, blessings of healing, and dedicating graves.

But that doesn't mean there aren't interesting questions to be asked about the chronology...

if they aren't sealed in heaven or recognized then what good are they? How is baptism recognized in heaven then?

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Saving ordinances such as baptism and confirmation, when performed by the proper authority and the recipient is worthy, are sealed and ratified by the Holy Spirit of Promise.

That is what I was thinking too, plus the Holy Spirit of promise seals and confirms the marriages performed in the Temple I was just wondering about the pre-1836 baptisms and the like. Thanks!

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That is what I was thinking too, plus the Holy Spirit of promise seals and confirms the marriages performed in the Temple I was just wondering about the pre-1836 baptisms and the like. Thanks!

Zactly.

:good:

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I believe the sealing power that Elijah restored is understood to be the sealing of husbands to wives and parents to children.

If sealings are between husband and wife(s) and they were restored in 1836 what was Joseph's marriage to Fanny Alger in 1833? A secular plural marriage?

Phaedrus

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If sealings are between husband and wife(s) and they were restored in 1836 what was Joseph's marriage to Fanny Alger in 1833? A secular plural marriage?

Phaedrus

=@

We need a "thread derail" emoticon.

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=@

We need a "thread derail" emoticon.

Why is that a thread derail? The OP asked about ordinances performed before the sealing restoration in 1836. The consensus of replies believe that was a martial sealing restoration not all priesthood ordinances. My question was very specific to OP's question. It's before 1836 and considered by many to be marital sealing since it was a plural wife.

Phaedrus

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Why is that a thread derail? The OP asked about ordinances performed before the sealing restoration in 1836. The consensus of replies believe that was a martial sealing restoration not all priesthood ordinances. My question was very specific to OP's question. It's before 1836 and considered by many to be marital sealing since it was a plural wife.

Phaedrus

See this thread.

The best apologetic answer is that the marriage to Fanny was done without the sealing power (and reportedly performed by Fanny's father?). Therefore, it was a time-only, temporal plural marriage.

But in the thread linked above, you can see where the Church now claims that the marriages had to be performed by the sealing power, so...

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The best apologetic answer is that the marriage to Fanny was done without the sealing power (and reportedly performed by Fanny's father?). Therefore, it was a time-only, temporal plural marriage.

But in the thread linked above, you can see where the Church now claims that the marriages had to be performed by the sealing power, so...

In Rough Stone Rolling, Bushman referred to Joseph's participation in magic and treasure seeking as a "preparatory gospel". Maybe the plural marriage to Fanny before the restoration of the Sealing Power was "preparatory polygamy". Otherwise, I can't see a purpose of the union.

Phaedrus

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If sealings are between husband and wife(s) and they were restored in 1836 what was Joseph's marriage to Fanny Alger in 1833? A secular plural marriage?

Phaedrus

http://en.fairmormon...ternal_marriage

Some have wondered how the first plural marriages (such as the Alger marriage) could have occurred before the 1836 restoration of the sealing keys in the Kirtland temple (see DC 110:). Again, this confusion occurs because we tend to conflate several ideas. They were not all initially wrapped together in one doctrine:

  • plural marriage - the idea that one could be married (in mortality) to more than one woman: being taught by 1831.
  • eternal marriage - the idea that a man and spouse could be sealed and remain together beyond the grave: being taught by 1835.
  • "celestial" marriage - the combination of the above two ideas, in which all marriages—plural and monogamous—could last beyond the grave via the sealing powers: implemented by 1840-41.

Thus, the marriage to Fanny would have occurred under the understanding #1 above. The concept of sealing beyond the grave came later.

Line upon line is consistent with the doctrine of the Church on how revelation is received---greater understanding comes through additional revelation based on faithful obedience to the law and gospel that has already been revealed.

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Line upon line is consistent with the doctrine of the Church on how revelation is received---greater understanding comes through additional revelation based on faithful obedience to the law and gospel that has already been revealed.

That's all well and good; my other thread was sparked by the Church's teaching that "Those entering into [polygamy] had to be authorized to do so, and the marriages had to be performed through the sealing power of the priesthood."

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