VideoGameJunkie Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 In the scriptures Jesus doesn't refer to Mary as mother, He addresses her as "woman". Is there any significance in this or am I making something out of nothing. I was just wondering if anyone knew.
Duncan Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 In Matt 12:49, Mark 3:34 he does, he just calls her his Mother
VideoGameJunkie Posted December 13, 2015 Author Posted December 13, 2015 Oh then whyd he call her woman while on the cross.
Sanpitch Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 24 minutes ago, VideoGameJunkie said: In the scriptures Jesus doesn't refer to Mary as mother, He addresses her as "woman". Is there any significance in this or am I making something out of nothing. I was just wondering if anyone knew. According to my reference, that was the custom in those days.
Tacenda Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 28 minutes ago, VideoGameJunkie said: In thit scriptits Jesus doesn't refer to Mary as mother, He addresses her as "woman". Is there any significance in this or am I making something out of nothing. I was just wondering if anyone knew.I You must be watching the same thing I am! The documentary on the Dead Sea Scrolls!
Duncan Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 27 minutes ago, VideoGameJunkie said: Oh then whyd he call her woman while on the cross. umm, I must have been sick that day, how the HE^# would I know???!!!!! 1
JAHS Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 Elder Talmadge said about this in Jesus the Christ: "The noun of address, "Woman," as applied by a son to his mother may sound to our ears somewhat harsh, if not disrespectful; but its use was really an expression of opposite import. To every son the mother ought to be preeminently the woman of women; She is the one woman in the world to whom the son owes his earthly existence; and though the title "Mother" belongs to every woman who has earned the honors of maternity, yet to no child is there more than one woman whom by natural right he can address by that title of respectful acknowledgment. When, in the last dread scenes of His mortal existence, Christ hung in dying agony upon the cross, He looked down upon the weeping Mary, His mother, and commended her to the care of the beloved apostle John, with the words: "Woman, behold thy son!" Can it be thought that in this supreme moment, our Lord's concern for the mother from whom He was about to be separated by death was associated with any emotion other than that of honor, tenderness and love? (JTC, pp. 144-45.) 1
Robert F. Smith Posted December 13, 2015 Posted December 13, 2015 40 minutes ago, VideoGameJunkie said: Oh then whyd he call her woman while on the cross. He refers to her as such in John 19:26 "Woman, behold thy son," but in the very next verse he assigns her to John the Beloved: "Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home." Jesus was looking after her even at the end, when he is dying. Beware taking any such comment out of context. 2
3DOP Posted December 14, 2015 Posted December 14, 2015 (edited) The Blessed Virgin Mary is, according to the Catholic faith, the Woman of Genesis 3:15. Read Genesis 3, and notice how many times we hear Adam's wife referred to not as Eve, but "the woman". It is through Mary, the Second Eve, who is identified with all womanhood, and her seed, that the serpent's head is crushed. Because you guys come from Protestantism, you might be wary of attributing too much to Mary in the economy of salvation. But it follows from the economy of damnation. Our race fell because of both a man and a woman together disobeying. Our race is redeemed because of both a man and woman obeying. Writing in the 2nd Century St. Irenaeus of Lyons connects the doctrine of damnation with the doctrine of salvation. In the following passage, Irenaeus is speaking first of Eve: Quote By disobeying, she became the cause of death for herself and the whole human race. In the same way, Mary, though she also had a husband, was still a virgin, and by obeying, she became the cause of salvation for herself and the whole human race...The knot of Eve's disobedience was untied by Mary's obedience. What Eve bound through her unbelief, Mary loosed by her faith. St. Irenaeus, Against the Heresies, Book 3, ch. 22 The parallels between the first and second woman are strikingly similar involving two virgin women and how they respond to angelic visitations for the detriment or the betterment of our race. I would suggest that Mary's identification as woman, is tied to Eve's identification as woman. Eve is the woman who brought death. Mary is the woman who brings life. Edited December 14, 2015 by 3DOP clarity
Robert F. Smith Posted December 14, 2015 Posted December 14, 2015 18 minutes ago, 3DOP said: The Blessed Virgin Mary is, according to the Catholic faith, the Woman of Genesis 3:15. Read Genesis 3, and notice how many times we hear Adam's wife referred to not as Eve, but "the woman". It is through Mary, the Second Eve, who is identified with all womanhood, and her seed, that the serpent's head is crushed. Because you guys come from Protestantism, you might be wary of attributing too much to Mary in the economy of salvation. But it follows from the economy of damnation. Our race fell because of both a man and a woman together disobeying. Our race is redeemed because of both a man and woman obeying. Writing in the 2nd Century St. Irenaeus of Lyons connects the doctrine of damnation with the doctrine of salvation. In the following passage, Irenaeus is speaking first of Eve: St. Irenaeus, Against the Heresies, Book 3, ch. 22 The parallels between the first and second woman are strikingly similar involving two virgin women and how they respond to angelic visitations for the detriment or the betterment of our race. I would suggest that Mary's identification as woman, is tied to Eve's identification as woman. Eve is the woman who brought death. Mary is the woman who brings life. Yes, and Jesus is the Second Adam, very much in the same sense. I Cor 15:45.
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