Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 Jesus is the Son of God. I am not sure how you think that this supports your position. Perhaps you could elaborate on it for me.You are the one that used that name so I was simply bringing it back to your attention.I was just using the term that LDS use. But this is not in the Bible--nor used by any other Christian denomination that I am aware of.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 1. If the Melchizedek priesthood existed at the time of Adam why on earth would it be named after Melchizedek who comes and goes within a few verses in Genesis.It wasn't named after Melchizedek in Adam's time. Melchizedek was a type and a shadow of Christ. That is why it is named after him. You bring up a good point - If Melchizedek has his name affixed to the priesthood that Christ needed to fulfill the Mosaic law, and Christ would be a priest after the order of Melchizedek, why isn't he mentioned more in the scriptures? Wouldn't there be something important about him that should be in the scriptures? 2. Since you believe that Abraham held the Melchizedek priesthood why do you think that Melchizedek was superior to Abraham Hebrews 7 4 See how great this man was to whom Abraham the patriarch gave a tenth of the spoils! 5 And those descendants of Levi who receive the priestly office have a commandment in the law to take tithes from the people, that is, from their brothers, though these also are descended from Abraham. 6 But this man who does not have his descent from them received tithes from Abraham and blessed him who had the promises. 7 It is beyond dispute that the inferior is blessed by the superior. Because he was a type and shadow of Christ. If his story was in the Bible, you would know.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 According to Hebrews 7, the Mosaic law could not be fulfilled without it.Just what is the priesthood to you?A priest intercedes between the God and the people. In the OT there were priest who performed their duties and a single Aaronic High Priest who entered into the Holy of Holies once a year on the day of Atonement to offer a sacrifice--he interceded between the people and God. This Aaronic High Priest was a shadow or Christ and his future sacrifice. When Christ died he superseded the Aaronic High Priest and became our eternal High Priest. Now instead of going through an earthly high priest we go to directly through our eternal High Priest which is Jesus. Symbolically you see this at the time of Christ's death when the temple curtain was split in two.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 But you are reading the Melchizedek priesthood into the text. Nowhere in the verses that you have given me says a thing about the Melchizedek priesthood.Okay, what is the priesthood? Define it.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 You bring up a good point - If Melchizedek has his name affixed to the priesthood that Christ needed to fulfill the Mosaic law, and Christ would be a priest after the order of Melchizedek, why isn't he mentioned more in the scriptures? Wouldn't there be something important about him that should be in the scriptures? From the Christian point of view (and also the Jewish POV) there wouldn't need to have more information because the point was made in Hebrews. An extensive elaboration about Melchizedek since he was only a shadow would take away from the real which is Christ. The point was that made was that Melchizedek was a shadow of the real thing to come and that his authority was above the Aaronic which came through Abrahams lineage.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 From the Christian point of view (and also the Jewish POV) there wouldn't need to have more information because the point was made in Hebrews. An extensive elaboration about Melchizedek since he was only a shadow would take away from the real which is Christ. The point was that made was that Melchizedek was a shadow of the real thing to come and that his authority was above the Aaronic which came through Abrahams lineage.What does it mean to be a priest after the order of Melchizedek? Without knowing his story, it doesn't convey much does it.
Tacenda Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 A priest intercedes between the God and the people. In the OT there were priest who performed their duties and a single Aaronic High Priest who entered into the Holy of Holies once a year on the day of Atonement to offer a sacrifice--he interceded between the people and God. This Aaronic High Priest was a shadow or Christ and his future sacrifice. When Christ died he superseded the Aaronic High Priest and became our eternal High Priest. Now instead of going through an earthly high priest we go to directly through our eternal High Priest which is Jesus. Symbolically you see this at the time of Christ's death when the temple curtain was split in two.This is how I understand it.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 What does it mean to be a priest after the order of Melchizedek? Without knowing his story, it doesn't convey much does it.Without the book of Hebrews that would be true, but there are several chapters in Hebrews that explains it for us.
Avatar4321 Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 It seems odd that God would have an active priesthood before Moses and during the implementation of the law of Moses and yet do away with it and not tell anyone. Especially when God is the same now as He has always been and had called countless people to priesthood office during the new testament. Especially when the new testament makes it a point to emphasize that the apostles and Jesus had authority.Peter said that we were a royal priesthood, how then can we conclude. That the priesthood was done away? Why is this concept of no priesthood non existent in Christianity until after the reformation?can, it seems to me that you don't fully understand lds doctrine. Might I suggest a more thorough study of the D&C? Sections 20, 84, 88, 107, 110, 121 would give you a much better understanding of the priesthood, it's offices and nature. 2
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Without the book of Hebrews that would be true, but there are several chapters in Hebrews that explains it for us.What is the priesthood? Define it.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 It seems odd that God would have an active priesthood before Moses and during the implementation of the law of Moses and yet do away with it and not tell anyone.He didn't do away with it and it certainly is discussed at length in the book of Hebrews. The function of a priest is to intercede between man and God. Prior to the law of Moses there wasn't an organized priesthood but men (head of household) would represent their family before God, this was followed by the Law of Moses/Levitical priesthood which included a single high priest who provided sacrifices including entering into the Holy of Holies once a year. When the High Priest would die then another High Priest would take his place. This high priest was symbolic of Christ who would ultimately come and become our High Priest and enter into the true Holy of Holies which is Heaven. Since Jesus has been resurrected and is obviously eternal he is our eternal High Priest. Instead of going to a human High Priest we now can body go to God through Jesus as our mediator since he has offered himself a sacrifice for our sins.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 What is the priesthood? Define it.Are you speaking about the Levitical priesthood?
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Are you speaking about the Levitical priesthood?Any priesthood.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 Any priesthood.In the OT the Priesthood consisted of those who were from the tribe of Levi--specifically via the line of Aaron. There were many priests but only one High Priest. The priests have various duties and responsibility with the function and upkeep of the Temple where as the High Priest was the one who was ultimately responsible for intercession between God and the People--and as I have said before entered the Holy of Holies once a year on the day of atonement.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 In the OT the Priesthood consisted of those who were from the tribe of Levi--specifically via the line of Aaron. There were many priests but only one High Priest. The priests have various duties and responsibility with the function and upkeep of the Temple where as the High Priest was the one who was ultimately responsible for intercession between God and the People--and as I have said before entered the Holy of Holies once a year on the day of atonement.Let me help you out... The priesthood is the power and authority for man to act in the name of God on earth in His stead. This allows Priests to do what the did. Now you have Jesus ordaining Apostles to positions of leadership, sending them to preach repentance and baptism, giving them the keys of the kingdom that will bind on earth and heaven - that is the priesthood. It does not matter that "priesthood" is not mentioned because it is the function of the priesthood to do such things. By no other means can such things be done. Jesus was asked by what authority He did things - it is by virtue of His priesthood, His own authority. His own power as given Him by the Father 1
JLHPROF Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Let me help you out... The priesthood is the power and authority for man to act in the name of God on earth in His stead.This allows Priests to do what the did.Now you have Jesus ordaining Apostles to positions of leadership, sending them to preach repentance and baptism, giving them the keys of the kingdom that will bind on earth and heaven - that is the priesthood. It does not matter that "priesthood" is not mentioned because it is the function of the priesthood to do such things. By no other means can such things be done.Jesus was asked by what authority He did things - it is by virtue of His priesthood, His own authority. His own power as given Him by the Father You're asking a traditional Christian to see evidence of Priesthood which he doesn't see as existing.You might as well ask an Atheist to see evidence of God in his life.He'll never see the evidence because he doesn't believe it exists. It requires faith to see the evidence of the unseen. Traditional Christian faith cannot see beyond the interpretations they were indoctrinated with any more than we can.
Tacenda Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Let me help you out... The priesthood is the power and authority for man to act in the name of God on earth in His stead.This allows Priests to do what the did.Now you have Jesus ordaining Apostles to positions of leadership, sending them to preach repentance and baptism, giving them the keys of the kingdom that will bind on earth and heaven - that is the priesthood. It does not matter that "priesthood" is not mentioned because it is the function of the priesthood to do such things. By no other means can such things be done.Jesus was asked by what authority He did things - it is by virtue of His priesthood, His own authority. His own power as given Him by the FatherWhich He now left with us right? Or are women out of luck when she needs a PH blessing if no PH holders are around? Or can she call on His power herself? Or does she have that power at all?
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Which He now left with us right? Or are women out of luck when she needs a PH blessing if no PH holders are around? Or can she call on His power herself? Or does she have that power at all?Women are not the only ones "out of luck" if a priesthood holder is not around. There is always answer to prayer that is available to all no matter who is around.
JLHPROF Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 Which He now left with us right? Or are women out of luck when she needs a PH blessing if no PH holders are around? Or can she call on His power herself? Or does she have that power at all? An endowed woman holds plenty of priesthood and can call on it when needed.However, the Church Christ himself established taught that calling the Elders when sick was the standard. Other than that faith can move mountains too.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 Let me help you out... The priesthood is the power and authority for man to act in the name of God on earth in His stead.This allows Priests to do what the did. The Apostles and NT leaders of the church didn't have the Melchizedek priesthood and they acted in the name of God on earth. Now back to the discussion. The role of the priest is to intercede between God and man. God is Holy and man is sinful. In the OT Sacrifices were required to provide a temporary covering for sin which were done by the priests and under the law the High Priest once a year as noted above. These sacrifices pointed to Christ and his role by providing Himself a sacrifice for our sins.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 Now you have Jesus ordaining Apostles to positions of leadership, sending them to preach repentance and baptism, giving them the keys of the kingdom that will bind on earth and heaven - that is the priesthood. It does not matter that "priesthood" is not mentioned because it is the function of the priesthood to do such things. By no other means can such things be done.That is what the LDS church teaches but that is not taught in the Bible. You can't show me a single NT church member who held the Melchizedek priesthood.
Canadaigua Posted January 10, 2015 Author Posted January 10, 2015 Women are not the only ones "out of luck" if a priesthood holder is not around.There is always answer to prayer that is available to all no matter who is around.1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, Mormonism teaches that there are many mediators between God and man--but the Bible teaches that since Jesus is our High Priest we can go directly to God through Jesus Christ.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, Mormonism teaches that there are many mediators between God and man--but the Bible teaches that since Jesus is our High Priest we can go directly to God through Jesus Christ.When is the last time you were in His presence?
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 The Apostles and NT leaders of the church didn't have the Melchizedek priesthood and they acted in the name of God on earth.The Aaronic and Levitical priesthood allowed them to do that, but only for the temporal ordinances. Jesus bestowed the higher priesthood upon the Apostles by calling them and ordaining them. That is in the Bible. Now back to the discussion. The role of the priest is to intercede between God and man. God is Holy and man is sinful. In the OT Sacrifices were required to provide a temporary covering for sin which were done by the priests and under the law the High Priest once a year as noted above. These sacrifices pointed to Christ and his role by providing Himself a sacrifice for our sins.And in order to do so one must have the authority.
Flyonthewall Posted January 10, 2015 Posted January 10, 2015 That is what the LDS church teaches but that is not taught in the Bible. You can't show me a single NT church member who held the Melchizedek priesthood.Did the Apostles have power and authority given to them by Jesus?
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