Brennin Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 Nice try but it is not an issue what so ever for the LDS. Remember that we are not Trinitarians.It is most certainly an issue for the LDS, who believe (incredibly) that God possesses a body of flesh and bone. (The idea that God is a primate living on Kolob surpasses the trinity on the scale of absurdity.)And the Trinitarians have an easy out as well stating that they are 3 distinct people but One God. Not 3 but One.No, they do not. The syllogism is a problem for anyone who believes Jesus is ontologically God, which certainly includes trinitarians.
semlogo Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 It is most certainly an issue for the LDS, who believe (incredibly) that God possesses a body of flesh and bone. (The idea that God is a primate living on Kolob surpasses the trinity on the scale of absurdity.)No, they do not. The syllogism is a problem for anyone who believes Jesus is ontologically God, which certainly includes trinitarians.This is a problem if we were Bible inerrantists - we're not.
Brennin Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 This is a problem if we were Bible inerrantists - we're not.Yes, instead you believe in what you claim are ancient, sacred books that were unknown until the 19th century and cannot be tied to any known civilization or extant text. That's an improvement alright!A Bible, a Bible, I've got a Bible!
semlogo Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 Yes, instead you believe in what you claim are ancient, sacred books that were unknown until the 19th century and cannot be tied to any known civilization or extant text. That's an improvement alright!A Bible, a Bible, I've got a Bible!I didn't say it was better or worse. What I'm saying is your point is irrelevant given the fact that we aren't inerrantists.
Mola Ram Suda Ram Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 It is most certainly an issue for the LDS, who believe (incredibly) that God possesses a body of flesh and bone. (The idea that God is a primate living on Kolob surpasses the trinity on the scale of absurdity.)Actually what is an absurdity is your mis-represnetation of what the LDS believe. I suggest that you keep your fingers tied when you are so blatantly ignorant of our beliefs.No, they do not. The syllogism is a problem for anyone who believes Jesus is ontologically God, which certainly includes trinitarians.Bummer I guess they missed the memo. I am telling you that your criticism is quite shallow and will convert no one to your brand of theology or lack there of. I award you no points and may God have mercy on your soul.
Mola Ram Suda Ram Posted September 10, 2010 Posted September 10, 2010 Yes, instead you believe in what you claim are ancient, sacred books that were unknown until the 19th century and cannot be tied to any known civilization or extant text. That's an improvement alright!A Bible, a Bible, I've got a Bible!More worthless jabber.
3DOP Posted September 11, 2010 Posted September 11, 2010 Hey Vance,Thank you for the very kind words. Allow me to respond to but one more minor concern. 3DOP, previouslyWithout repeating myself I conclude that God the Father would still be God if [He] had a body. I conclude that God the Father would still be God if He lacked a body. That covers both sides. It is not controversial. Both sides believe that the Holy Ghost needs no body, nor did Christ in order to be God.Vance, in reply to 3DOP previouslyI can agree with that statement. But it is a bit nebulous, in that "to be God" is not defined. That the un-embodied Jesus was divine (as is the un-embodied Holy Ghost) is not in question here.3DOP NowOh Vance. Yes! It HAS to be nebulous. We are not describing God here. We assuredly have very major disagreements about what "to be God" means...probably irreconcilable between most LDS and Catholic. I don't know how much an LDS could theoretically budge about what "to be God" means and still be a fully acceptable LDS. Because of our admitted committment to creeds, we "orthodox" Catholics seem less free in this regard than "orthoprax" Mormons who seem more committed to practice than dogma. My modest proposal, for what little it may be worth is that both LDS and Catholic can agree that "to be God" (no matter how either camp would describe it) neither implies "a body" nor "not a body". Regards,3DOP
LovemyLord Posted September 12, 2010 Posted September 12, 2010 Also, modern scholars are agreed that the King James' translation of John 4:24 as "God is a Spirit" is incorrect. The correct rendering of the Greek is "God is spirit." The New Testament contains a number of other brief statements about God which, like John 4:24, were clearly not put forth as absolute definitions, e.g., "God is light" (1 John 1:5), "God is love" (1 John 4:, and "God is a consuming fire" (Hebrews 12:29). Obviously, these verses are simply metaphors. So yes God is spirit, but he also happens to be made of flesh and bone.Luke 24:39 Behold My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself. Handle Me and see, for a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have.
LovemyLord Posted September 12, 2010 Posted September 12, 2010 And Gen 1 [26] ("And God said, Let us make man in our image") poses a problem for historic Christians.Not really, since the word make here implies creation ex-nihilo, from no material substance, while God's forming man out of the dust of the ground implies being created out of already eisting materials (that is, dust).
LeSellers Posted September 13, 2010 Posted September 13, 2010 Not really, since the word make here implies creation ex-nihilo, from no material substance,...Fruitlessly attempting to deny myself the picking of nits, I believe you have it wrong on this. The word used in this sentence is ???? ?a?s?a?h1) to do, fashion, accomplish, make1a) (Qal)1a1) to do, work, make, produce1a1a) to do1a1b) to work1a1c) to deal (with)1a1d) to act, act with effect, effect1a2) to make1a2a) to make1a2b) to produce1a2c) to prepare1a2d) to make (an offering)1a2e) to attend to, put in order1a2f) to observe, celebrate1a2g) to acquire (property)1a2h) to appoint, ordain, institute1a2i) to bring about1a2j) to use1a2k) to spend, pass1b) (Niphal)1b1) to be done1b2) to be made1b3) to be produced1b4) to be offered1b5) to be observed1b6) to be used1c) (Pual) to be made2) (Piel) to press, squeezeNothing in this definition implies (and it certainly does not require) creatio ex nihilo. You may be thinking of Gen 1:1, where the verb is ???? ba?ra?'1) to create, shape, form1a) (Qal) to shape, fashion, create1a1) of heaven and earth1a2) of individual man1a3) of new conditions and circumstances1a4) of transformations1b) (Niphal) to be created1b1) of heaven and earth1b2) of birth1b3) of something new1b4) of miracles1c) (Piel)1c1) to cut down1c2) to cut out2) to be fat2a) (Hiphil) to make yourselves fatIf you examine this definition carefully, you will still see that creatio ex nihilo is not required. It's a manmade construct, designed in the iv to appease the Hellenists among the Jews and later to appease yet more Hellenists, this time among the Saints. while God's forming man out of the dust of the ground implies being created out of already eisting materials (that is, dust).This time, the verb is ??? ya?tsar:1) to form, fashion, frame1a) (Qal) to form, fashion1a1) of human activity1a2) of divine activity1a2a) of creation1a2a1) of original creation1a2a2) of individuals at conception1a2a3) of Israel as a people1a2b) to frame, pre-ordain, plan (figuratively of divine) purpose of a situation)1b) (Niphal) to be formed, be created1c) (Pual) to be predetermined, be pre-ordained1d) (Hophal) to be formedThis is only one of the verbs listed that could, possibly, imply creatio ex-nihil. But, as you pointed out, it cannot because the explicit reference is to forming of dust, that pre-existing material. Lehi
Vance Posted September 13, 2010 Posted September 13, 2010 My modest proposal, for what little it may be worth is that both LDS and Catholic can agree that "to be God" (no matter how either camp would describe it) neither implies "a body" nor "not a body". Regards,3DOPI can agree with that.
Vance Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 Rob...I would especially like to hear your take on this one.Me too.I thought he would be back by now. I guess he hasn't returned from his trip yet.
CV75 Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 how do you define "Spirit"?God is a Spirit with a capital "S", Jesus is the Spirit of truth with a capital "S" (D&C 93:9, 11, 26), the Holy Ghost is a personage of Spirit with a capital "S" (D&C 130:22); man is spirit with a small "s" (D&C 93:33); the devil is a spirit with a small "s" (D&C 93:25).Man (spirit, small "s") "was also in the beginning with the Father; that which is Spirit, even the Spirit of truth (D&C 93:23)," as was the devil (spirit, small "s", D&C 93:25).From this I take it that "Spirit" and "spirit" are anything that is not element, and they can be separated or inseparably connected with element (D&C 93:33). Where the elements are the tabernacle of God, His glory is His intelligence, light and truth (D&C 93:35, 36)--not the eternal elements themselves--indicating that His Spirit is intelligence, light and truth.So in summary, look in the mirror and you are looking at spirit, though you may not recognize or discern it. Man is spirit, along with a temporarily connected body comprised of element. God is Spirit, along with an inseparably connected body of element. His Spirit is a fullness of intelligence, light and truth. Man's spirit, and the devil's spirit, are also intelligence, light and truth but not a fullness, for as long as they exist, and they exist so long as they act so as to exist (D&C 93:30).
Vance Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 With this small exception.From this I take it that "Spirit" and "spirit" are anythingsomething that is not element,There may be somethings that aren't element that are also not spirit. We just don't know.
CV75 Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 A kindred spirit!I appreciate your point about what we don
Vance Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 <SNIP>Fair enough.As mfbukowski might say, if we don't know about it, it doesn't exist, as far as we are concerned.
Storm Rider Posted September 22, 2010 Posted September 22, 2010 My modest proposal, for what little it may be worth is that both LDS and Catholic can agree that "to be God" (no matter how either camp would describe it) neither implies "a body" nor "not a body". Regards,3DOP3DOP, I would join with the previous answers and agree with this proposal. My eyes tend to roll back in my head to read conflicts between the belief in the Trinity and the Godhead. Catholics believe in the same three persons of the Godhead that LDS do. I also believe that Catholics and LDS are on the same path in returning to God. I firmly believe that when I meet God and Jesus Christ I will be able to kiss the feet that have been bathed with the tears of Catholics, EO, Anglican, Baptist, LDS, and a host coming from other religions. God has made a way for all to come unto him through his Son. May all the righteous be able to stand together in the works of God to fight against the evil one.
Rob Bowman Posted October 3, 2010 Posted October 3, 2010 Pa Pa and Vance,Papa wrote: "Rob...I would especially like to hear your take on this one." And Vance wrote: "Me too. I thought he would be back by now. I guess he hasn't returned from his trip yet."I'm sorry I've been absent from this forum for so long. When I returned from England my back was a wreck and I was laid up for days. In addition, due to an unforeseen turn of events I find myself in effect with a second job that is nearly full-time in scope.I hope to post a response to the question soon. I'd like to do so today but more realistically it may be another couple of days.Thanks for your patience.
Bill “Papa” Lee Posted October 4, 2010 Author Posted October 4, 2010 Pa Pa and Vance,Papa wrote: "Rob...I would especially like to hear your take on this one." And Vance wrote: "Me too. I thought he would be back by now. I guess he hasn't returned from his trip yet."I'm sorry I've been absent from this forum for so long. When I returned from England my back was a wreck and I was laid up for days. In addition, due to an unforeseen turn of events I find myself in effect with a second job that is nearly full-time in scope.I hope to post a response to the question soon. I'd like to do so today but more realistically it may be another couple of days.Thanks for your patience.Well I hope all things work out for you.
Vance Posted October 4, 2010 Posted October 4, 2010 When I returned from England my back was a wreck and I was laid up for days.OUCH!!!I am very sorry to hear that. When your back is in pain there is very little that you can do without causing more pain. I hope you get feeling better SOON!
Rob Bowman Posted October 4, 2010 Posted October 4, 2010 Zakuska,You gave the following quotation:The late Raymond Brown [Catholic Theologian] who was considered by many in the world to be the Worlds leading scholar/Theologian on the Gospel of John stated regarding John 4:24 -" This is not an essential definition of GOD, but of GOD'S dealing with men; it means that GOD is spirit toward men because he gives the spirit [xivv 16] which begets them anew". There are in fact two other descriptions in Johns writtings : "GOD is light [1 JN 1:5], GOD is Love [ JN 4:8], thou no one has argued that GOD is a light or a species of Love . In short one must worship the Father "Through the Spirit" which he has given to the Church [John 14: 16], there is no hint of suggestion that he "himself" is a "spirit". See Anchor Bible, John, 172.A correction is in order here. Someone -- I don't know who -- has taken the above quote, which is actually the LDS writer Eugene Seaich quoting Brown, and made the whole thing out to be a quotation just from Brown. I don't have Seaich's book, but I found a quotation from it that appears to be correct. The quotation from Seaich reads as follows:As Raymond Brown -- undoubtedly the world's leading scholarly authority on John's Gospel -- explains, "This is not an essential definition of God, but a description of God's dealings with men, it means that God is spirit toward men because he gives the spirit [xiv. 16] which begets them anew" (Anchor Bible, John, p. 172). There are in fact two other such descriptions in John's writing, "God is light" (1 John 1:5), and "God is love" (1 John 4:8 ), though no one has argued that God is a light, or a species of love! In short, one must worship the Father through the Spirit which he has given to the Church (John 14: 16), there being no hint of [sic] suggestion that he is himself "a spirit."Eugene Seaich, Ancient Texts and Mormonism, 26, as quoted in Michael W. Hickenbotham, Answering Challenging Mormon Questions, 85.Notice that Seaich ends his quotation from Brown less than halfway through this paragraph. Here is a quotation directly from Brown's commentary, which I do have:24. God is Spirit. This is not an essential definition of God, but a description of God's dealings with men; it means that God is Spirit toward men because He gives the Spirit [xiv. 16] which begets them anew. " There are two other such descriptions in John's writings, "God is light" (I John i 5), and "God is love" (I John iv 8 ). These too refer to the God who acts; God gives the world His Son, the light of the world (iii 19, viii 12, ix 5) as a sign of His love (iii 16).Raymond E. Brown, The Gospel according to John (i-xii), Anchor Bible 29 (New York: Doubleday--Anchor Bible, 1966), 172. Assuming Hickenbotham's quotation from Seaich is correct, it would appear that Seaich repeated a sentence from Brown almost verbatim without acknowledging that it came from Brown, and then added his own comment, "though no one has argued that God is a light, or a species of love." The statement that you had in bold, "there is no hint of suggestion that he 'himself' is a 'spirit,'" appears to be an inexact quotation from Seaich, not from Brown.John 4:24 can be understood as Brown says and also understood as suggesting indeed that God is a spirit, even if it is not "an essential definition," by which Brown evidently meant a definition that would specify fully and exactly what is essential to God that distinguishes him from everything else. John 4:24 is not such a definition because it would be incomplete as such, not because God is something other than a spirit. This is why it is important to recognize that the quotation you passed on (possibly from someone else) attributes statements to Brown that he did not make.More later.
mpschmitt Posted October 5, 2010 Posted October 5, 2010 This is often a paradoxical argument. Is God a Spirit or does he have a body of "Flesh and Bone"
cdowis Posted October 5, 2010 Posted October 5, 2010 Thanks Rob for pointing that out. That's why it is dangerous for us to quote outside sources, unless you can trust them implicitly. Especially with you checking it out for us! A word to the wise.
Rob Bowman Posted October 6, 2010 Posted October 6, 2010 I have been asked to explain why, as an orthodox Christian, I take the statement
cdowis Posted October 7, 2010 Posted October 7, 2010 The answer is surprisingly simple. In the Bible, the terms fire and love are not terms that denote or connote beings of a certain kind, whereas the term spirit is such a term. That is, one never (to my knowledge) encounters statements in the Bible (or anywhere else I know) to the effect "I saw a love" or "The fire spoke to me" or the like. Well, Moses spoke with the Lord in the midst of a burning bush, and with the Lord face to face in the midst of fire, Gen 3:2-4 and Deut 5:4.Anyway, you do a have a good point, and I have no desire to quibble with you. My response would be that Christ is also spirit, but he has a body of flesh and bones as well. (God is spirit, and Christ is not spirit?)We were created in the image of God, and Christ manifested that image after the resurrection. It looked just like us, with an immortal body of flesh and bones.After all, they are "one substance", are they not?
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