peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 And that is the entire problem.It is an enormously complex problem, yet with the right kind of software tools it would allow a machine to fully comprehend anything that a human comprehends.
Calm Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Did you read your own cite? from ne "not" (see no) + an "one"
peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 There is "none else" means "there is no-one else." It does not mean "there is no-thing else." YOur etymology of none was incorrect. I posted a link.http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=none
volgadon Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Apparently not.http://www.etymonlin...x.php?term=noneNot any, well, look at any. http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=any&allowed_in_frame=0
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 (edited) Considering the absolute difficulty of two people having a conversation both walking away from that conversation with an identical understanding of what just happened, honestly I have a hard problem to believe that Montague has anything to do with 'real life'.This is pretty restricted to a particular view of language which really -as you say- has little to do with "philosophy" in a traditional sense and courses in this stuff are offered academically in hybrid departments which are inter-disciplinary with linguistics or computer programming departments. http://www.linguisti...philosophy.html It assumes Montague's and a logical-positivist point of view, which is of course as we have seen in other links above, a debatable position in a philosophical sense- but again, this has little to do with philosophy in a traditional sense- it is a specialization taught typically through other disciplines. Edited December 3, 2012 by mfbukowski
Calm Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 YOur etymology of none was incorrect. I posted a link.http://www.etymonlin...x.php?term=noneCheck again....
volgadon Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 In my opinion philosophically this is pretty restricted to a particular view of language which really -as you say- has little to do with "philosophy" in a traditional sense and courses in this stuff are offered academically in hybrid departments which are inter-disciplinary with linguistics or computer programming departments. http://www.linguisti...philosophy.htmlIn my opinion philosophically this is pretty restricted to a particular view of language which really -as you say- has little to do with "philosophy" in a traditional sense and courses in this stuff are offered academically in hybrid departments which are inter-disciplinary with linguistics or computer programming departments. http://www.linguisti...philosophy.htmlAnyone reading Montague needs a corrective dose of Dylan Thomas.
peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 There is "none else" means "there is no-one else." It does not mean "there is no-thing else."http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=none none (n.) O.E. nan (pron.) "not one, not any," from ne "not" (see no) + an "one" (see one). Cognate with O.S., M.L.G. nen, O.N. neinn, M.Du., Du. neen, O.H.G., Ger. nein "no," and analogous to L. non- (see non-). As an adverb from c.1200. As an adjective, since c.1600 reduced to no except in a few archaic phrases, especially before vowels, such as none other, none the worse.[none] boils down to {not one}, it does not boil down to {no one}.
Bill Hamblin Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Anyone reading Montague needs a corrective dose of Dylan Thomas.Or Monty Python.
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Here is another example when taking the words precisely literally derives a completely different meaning:http://bible.cc/mark/13-19.htmMark 13:19 NRSVFor in those days there will be suffering, such as has not been from the beginning of the creation that God created until now, no, and never will be.suffering ... never will beThis indicates the world war three nuclear bombs dropping everywhere Armageddon will not ever happen. If we assume that Christ screwed up and meant to say never will be equaled again, then we get the common meaning that everyone takes as the truth. I assume that Christ did not screw up and said exactly and precisely what he meant, and meant exactly and precisely what he said.Wow. You are a radical fundamentalist. Kinda scary actually.Do you speak other languages? Have you ever done any translations whatsoever?
peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Did you read your own cite?[none] boils down to {not one}, it does not boil down to {no one}.
volgadon Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Or Monty Python.Intelligent humour is always a good cure.
Bill Hamblin Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=none none (n.) O.E. nan (pron.) "not one, not any," from ne "not" (see no) + an "one" (see one). Cognate with O.S., M.L.G. nen, O.N. neinn, M.Du., Du. neen, O.H.G., Ger. nein "no," and analogous to L. non- (see non-). As an adverb from c.1200. As an adjective, since c.1600 reduced to no except in a few archaic phrases, especially before vowels, such as none other, none the worse.[none] boils down to {not one}, it does not boil down to {no one}.And not one boils down to no one. But far be it from me to quibble. I'll concede that none derives from not one. It still makes my point. It is not "no thing".
volgadon Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 http://www.etymonlin...x.php?term=nonenone (n.) O.E. nan (pron.) "not one, not any," from ne "not" (see no) + an "one" (see one). Cognate with O.S., M.L.G. nen, O.N. neinn, M.Du., Du. neen, O.H.G., Ger. nein "no," and analogous to L. non- (see non-). As an adverb from c.1200. As an adjective, since c.1600 reduced to no except in a few archaic phrases, especially before vowels, such as none other, none the worse.[none] boils down to {not one}, it does not boil down to {no one}.It says right there, see "no."
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Not even Montague could have used it that way.It is relevant I suppose for computer languages.I bet it is used in google translator! 1
Calm Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 [none] boils down to {not one}, it does not boil down to {no one}."not" (see no)According to your cite, they are equivalent. Or is your cite incorrect on that?
peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 There is "none else" means "there is no-one else." It does not mean "there is no-thing else."none can be taken to mean [not any] or [not one], it excludes all, ie nothing elsenone (n.) O.E. nan (pron.) "not one, not any," from ne "not" (see no) + an "one" (see one). Cognate with O.S., M.L.G. nen, O.N. neinn, M.Du., Du. neen, O.H.G., Ger. nein "no," and analogous to L. non- (see non-). As an adverb from c.1200. As an adjective, since c.1600 reduced to no except in a few archaic phrases, especially before vowels, such as none other, none the worse.
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 {There is none else} never has and never will mean [there is some else].Under this logic the bible is self-contradictory and therefore should be discarded. You have already seen verses which describe other Gods.So what's the answer to that Mr Spock?
Calm Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 none can be taken to mean [not any] or [not one], it excludes all, ie nothing elseYou mean there is more than one definition? Shocking! Ambiguity as opposed to precision.
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Although there are many different branches of Buddhism, I am not at all confident that many, if any, see "enlightenment" as "union with God." This is your neomystical conflation and idiosyncratic use of language. Enlightenment (Sanskrit bodhi, Japanese satori) in Buddhism means literally "awakening" not "enlightenment," and technically refers to the recognition of the true nature of reality and the Four Noble Truths. It has nothing to do with "union with God."Totally correct, absolutely right.
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 Which is what our dollars will soon be worth. I'm sure you remember fondly the old Israeli shekel!On the other hand, the old Israeli shekel was never quite as awesome as the Turkish lira!Did you know that any old silver quarter pre-1964- with no numismatic value- just for silver content- is now worth around 5 bucks?Where's a time machine when you need one?
peteolcott Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 And not one boils down to no one.But far be it from me to quibble. I'll concede that none derives from not one. It still makes my point. It is not "no thing". none == not any == nothing
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 My grandmother once faced the dillemma of either buying a new pair of shoes, or making a house payment...We will be seeing variable PRINCIPAL loans I am sure. They have been done in Brazil and other countries. The principal balance is pegged to an inflation factor.
mfbukowski Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 (edited) No one that has not had this experience directly first-hand for themselves has the sufficient basis to determine whether or not Union-with-God is not also equally apt. Very few buddhists ever have this experience, thus most are unqualified to speak.This is a tacit admission that the Buddhist experience is totally different. Fancy that, hey?Why don't we just say that no one is "qualified" to experience another tradition's experience and then we will have come full circle? Edited December 3, 2012 by mfbukowski 1
volgadon Posted December 3, 2012 Posted December 3, 2012 none == not any == nothingDid you see where I provided a link to the etymology of "any"?
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