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Circumcision


inquiringmind

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In 1840, Joseph Smith said:

These sacrifices, as well as every ordinance belonging to the Priesthood, will, when the Temple of the Lord shall be built, and the sons of Levi be purified, be fully restored and attended to in all their powers, ramifications, and blessings. This ever did and ever will exist when the [p.212] powers of the Melchisedic Priesthood are sufficiently manifest; else how can the restitution of all things spoken of by the holy Prophets be brought to pass? It is not to be understood that the law of Moses will be established again with all its rites and variety of ceremonies; this has never been spoken of by the Prophets; but those things which existed prior to Moses' day, namely, sacrifice, will be continued. (History of the Church 4:211).

http://www.fairwiki.org/Animal_sacrifice

Circumcision on the eighth day was also instituted before The Law of Moses.

Will it be restored?

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The quote from Joseph Smith says, 'those things which existed prior to Moses' day, namely, sacrifice.' No mention of circumcision there. Of course, what is commonly called circumcision today wasn't even practiced by the Jews until the second century AD. I therefore, quite thankfully, cast my vote in the 'no' column.

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D&C 74 and Moroni 8:8 seem to tie the end of practice as treated both under the Law of Moses and pre-Moses to the mission of Christ in fulfilling the law of circumcision.

D&C 74 connects circumcision to the false tradition among many of the Jews in New Testament times that little children are unholy, seemingly a secondary reason for it no longer being a valid covenant among them. The primary reason is explained in Moroni 8:8, simply that the law of circumcision is done away in Christ.

While Moroni 8:8 may be interpreted to mean that circumcision is simply considered the same way as baptism for little children, there is no indication that baptism for little children ever had to be done away in Christ, as the priesthood was never under covenant to baptize children (rather it was an abomination).

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Of course, what is commonly called circumcision today wasn't even practiced by the Jews until the second century AD.

I thought it went back to Abraham?

Could you explain what you mean by "what is commonly called circumcision today," and how it differs from what was done to Isaac and Ishmael?

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I thought it went back to Abraham?

Could you explain what you mean by "what is commonly called circumcision today," and how it differs from what was done to Isaac and Ishmael?

It went much further back. There is strong visible :::gulp::: evidence of the practice among the Egyptians.

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Could you explain what you mean by "what is commonly called circumcision today," and how it differs from what was done to Isaac and Ishmael?

What is commonly called circumcision today is called 'periah' in Hebrew and became the norm for Jews only in the second century AD as a means of trying to make it impossible for Hellenising Jews to appear uncircumcised. Before that, circumcision consisted only of 'milah,' which is far, far removed from what most people think of when they think of circumcision today. It was so minor that many Jewish males could make themselves appear Greek in public settings by utilising a few head hairs tied in a knot. Google 'periah' and 'milah' together if you want more details.

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