Flyonthewall Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Faith without the spirit is dead works. If by grace, then is it no more of works (Rom 11:6). Polygamy is wives .... wives or polygamy is fornication.1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)Polygamy is good only with God's approval, and is available only to those whom God approves. Why would an explaination include references to polygamy when those who asked the question about fornication, were not subject it?
Zakuska Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 ZakuskaSounds like grace ... Acts 5:32 says "whom God hath given"On what condition?"To those who Obey"Was God obeying himself?Are you talking on his FATHERS side?On both his mothers and his step fathers side.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483You should go look up the definition of fornication as it seems you have no clue what that word means."wives" or polygamy is fornication. We should abstain from fornication.
Zakuska Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Faith without the spirit is dead works. If by grace, then is it no more of works (Rom 11:6). Polygamy is wives .... wives or polygamy is fornication.1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)So then Abraham commited Fornication at Gods command?
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 FlyonthewallPolygamy is good only with God's approval, and is available only to those whom God approves. Why would an explaination include references to polygamy when those who asked the question about fornication, were not subject it?Polygamy is fornication for those under the New Covenant. The New Covenant began with Jesus and is an everlasting covenant (Heb 8:6-8; Heb 13:20).
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 ZakuskaWas God obeying himself?It is God which works in us both to will and to do of his good pleasure (Phil 2:13).So then Abraham commited Fornication at Gods command?In the Old Testament wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 FlyonthewallPolygamy is fornication for those under the New Covenant. The New Covenant began with Jesus and is an everlasting covenant (Heb 8:6-8; Heb 13:20).You really have erroneous understandings of the bible. Nowhere does it talk about quantity in that verse! His own wife, means he should have a wife, and it shouldn't be someone elses. Nowhere does that imply one wife! It's like trying to discuss with a broken record.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483You really have erroneous understandings of the bible. Nowhere does it talk about quantity in that verse! His own wife, means he should have a wife, and it shouldn't be someone elses. Nowhere does that imply one wife! It's like trying to discuss with a broken record.My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.Out of contextHe is not talking about polygamy, rather fornication, which is if a man and a woman are not married, and have relations. He says they should be married so they don't fornicate. That is the whole purpose of his answering the question, which he goes on to talk about, if they ae single, they should remain as he, but if they can't control themselves to get married so they don't sin. I find it interesting that you are adding meaning to the bible when this chapter in no way has anything to do with polygamy.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Out of contextClearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Clearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)Once again, what does it mean to fornicate Johnny? What is the definition of fornication? Go look it up! It means sexual relations outside of matrimony.Now, if you are married and have relations with someone who ISN'T your spouse, THAT is called adultery.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Once again, what does it mean to fornicate Johnny? What is the definition of fornication? Go look it up! It means sexual relations outside of matrimony.The lexicon says fornication is "illicit sexual intercourse" ... sounds like polygamy to me.
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Clearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)Let's go literal like you. Clearly, everyone should be married, because as "in context" it says let "every" man have his own wife. So, of course every man should be married. So Paul contradics himself then, because later he says they should remain (presumabely) single like him.LDSMusic483The lexicon says fornication is "illicit sexual intercourse" ... sounds like polygamy to me.Finish the quote...outside of marriage. Otherwise it's adultery. Doesn't sound like polygamy to me.
Flyonthewall Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.Your understanding is consistent with your understanding. 1 Cor 7:2 reveals nothing about polygamy, it only says that a man should only have sexual relations with his wife and a woman should only have sexual relations with her husband. Polygamy was practiced all through out the OT, wives and concubines were given to specific people by the Lord. Nothing in the NT says anything about it being evil or forbidden. If 1Cor 7:2 is the best you have about polygamy, then you you are stretching this scripture further than the scope in which it was given.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Let's go literal like you. Clearly, everyone should be married, because as "in context" it says let "every" man have his own wife. So, of course every man should be married. So Paul contradics himself then, because later he says they should remain (presumabely) single like him.From other scriptures we know that this would reference those who are called to be marry.Finish the quote...outside of marriage. Otherwise it's adultery. Doesn't sound like polygamy to me.The lexican does not say "outside of marriage"
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483The lexican does not say "outside of marriage"Tell me this Johnny...what is the difference between fornication and adultery.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 FlyonthewallPolygamy was practiced all through out the OT, wives and concubines were given to specific people by the Lord. Nothing in the NT says anything about it being evil or forbidden.In the Old Testament plural wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant. Under the New Covenant polygamy or wives is fornication, wife is not fornication (1Cor 7:2).
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Tell me this Johnny...what is the difference between fornication and adulteryThe lexicon says - fornication - illicit sexual intercourse - adultery - unlawful intercourse with another's wife
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483The lexicon says - fornication - illicit sexual intercourse - adultery - unlawful intercourse with another's wifeAre you looking at a site or do you have an actual dictionary, because I found your fornication definition online in Strongs Lexicon, but I can't find the same under adultery.
Flyonthewall Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 FlyonthewallIn the Old Testament plural wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant. Under the New Covenant polygamy or wives is fornication, wife is not fornication (1Cor 7:2).Since Jesus Christ is the author of the New Covenant, show me where He addressed it. In actuality, it is not addressed specifically anywhere, and the best you can do is try and milk a meaning out of a fornication question and response. Polygamy was an institution reserved for specific people at specific times. Since the people who were being addressed were not involved in polygamy, Paul had no reason to use the plural of "wife".
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483Are you looking at a site or do you have an actual dictionary, because I found your fornication definition online in Strongs Lexicon, but I can't find the same under adultery.I am looking at the following site,http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexico...G4202&t=KJV
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483I am looking at the following site,http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexico...G4202&t=KJVOh good, I was hoping you were! Let's look at the article under adultery:conjugal infidelity. An adulterer was a man who had illicit intercourse with a married or a betrothed woman, and such a woman was an adulteress. Intercourse between a married man and an unmarried woman was fornication. Adultery was regarded as a great social wrong, as well as a great sin.So...where does it mention polygamy there?
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 FlyonthewallSince Jesus Christ is the author of the New Covenant, show me where He addressed it. In actuality, it is not addressed specifically anywhere, and the best you can do is try and milk a meaning out of a fornication question and response.He addressed "wife" and fornication in 1Cor 7:2.Polygamy was an institution reserved for specific people at specific times. Since the people who were being addressed were not involved in polygamy, Paul had no reason to use the plural of "wife".Those under the New Covenant weren't involved in polygamy because it was fornication.
johnny Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483So...where does it mention polygamy there?The lexicon shows that fornication and adultery are different in that fornication is simply "illicit sexual intercourse".
LDSMusic483 Posted November 16, 2008 Posted November 16, 2008 LDSMusic483The lexicon shows that fornication and adultery are different in that fornication is simply "illicit sexual intercourse". Great! So if a man illicits sexual intercourse from his wife, he's a fornicator too!
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