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Posted
LDSMusic483

Faith without the spirit is dead works. If by grace, then is it no more of works (Rom 11:6).

Polygamy is wives .... wives or polygamy is fornication.

1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)

Polygamy is good only with God's approval, and is available only to those whom God approves. Why would an explaination include references to polygamy when those who asked the question about fornication, were not subject it?

Posted
ZakuskaSounds like grace ... Acts 5:32 says "whom God hath given"
On what condition?

"To those who Obey"

Was God obeying himself?

Are you talking on his FATHERS side?

On both his mothers and his step fathers side.

Posted

LDSMusic483

You should go look up the definition of fornication as it seems you have no clue what that word means.

"wives" or polygamy is fornication. We should abstain from fornication.

Posted
LDSMusic483

Faith without the spirit is dead works. If by grace, then is it no more of works (Rom 11:6).

Polygamy is wives .... wives or polygamy is fornication.

1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)

So then Abraham commited Fornication at Gods command?

Posted

Flyonthewall

Polygamy is good only with God's approval, and is available only to those whom God approves. Why would an explaination include references to polygamy when those who asked the question about fornication, were not subject it?

Polygamy is fornication for those under the New Covenant. The New Covenant began with Jesus and is an everlasting covenant (Heb 8:6-8; Heb 13:20).

Posted

Zakuska

Was God obeying himself?

It is God which works in us both to will and to do of his good pleasure (Phil 2:13).

So then Abraham commited Fornication at Gods command?

In the Old Testament wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant

Posted
Flyonthewall

Polygamy is fornication for those under the New Covenant. The New Covenant began with Jesus and is an everlasting covenant (Heb 8:6-8; Heb 13:20).

You really have erroneous understandings of the bible. Nowhere does it talk about quantity in that verse! His own wife, means he should have a wife, and it shouldn't be someone elses. Nowhere does that imply one wife! It's like trying to discuss with a broken record.

Posted

LDSMusic483

You really have erroneous understandings of the bible. Nowhere does it talk about quantity in that verse! His own wife, means he should have a wife, and it shouldn't be someone elses. Nowhere does that imply one wife! It's like trying to discuss with a broken record.

My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.

Posted
LDSMusic483

My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.

Out of context

He is not talking about polygamy, rather fornication, which is if a man and a woman are not married, and have relations. He says they should be married so they don't fornicate. That is the whole purpose of his answering the question, which he goes on to talk about, if they ae single, they should remain as he, but if they can't control themselves to get married so they don't sin. I find it interesting that you are adding meaning to the bible when this chapter in no way has anything to do with polygamy.

Posted

LDSMusic483

Out of context

Clearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"

  • 1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)

Posted
LDSMusic483

Clearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"

  • 1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)

Once again, what does it mean to fornicate Johnny? What is the definition of fornication? Go look it up! It means sexual relations outside of matrimony.

Now, if you are married and have relations with someone who ISN'T your spouse, THAT is called adultery.

Posted

LDSMusic483

Once again, what does it mean to fornicate Johnny? What is the definition of fornication? Go look it up! It means sexual relations outside of matrimony.

The lexicon says fornication is "illicit sexual intercourse" ... sounds like polygamy to me.

Posted
LDSMusic483Clearly in context, clearly the context is fornication and "wife"
  • 1Cor.7 ([2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.)

Let's go literal like you. Clearly, everyone should be married, because as "in context" it says let "every" man have his own wife. So, of course every man should be married. So Paul contradics himself then, because later he says they should remain (presumabely) single like him.
LDSMusic483The lexicon says fornication is "illicit sexual intercourse" ... sounds like polygamy to me.
Finish the quote...outside of marriage. Otherwise it's adultery. Doesn't sound like polygamy to me.
Posted
LDSMusic483

My understanding it consistent with what the Bible reveals ... 1Cor 7:2 reveals "wife" it does not reveal "wives". Wives or polygamy is fornication.

Your understanding is consistent with your understanding. 1 Cor 7:2 reveals nothing about polygamy, it only says that a man should only have sexual relations with his wife and a woman should only have sexual relations with her husband. Polygamy was practiced all through out the OT, wives and concubines were given to specific people by the Lord. Nothing in the NT says anything about it being evil or forbidden. If 1Cor 7:2 is the best you have about polygamy, then you you are stretching this scripture further than the scope in which it was given.

Posted

LDSMusic483

Let's go literal like you. Clearly, everyone should be married, because as "in context" it says let "every" man have his own wife. So, of course every man should be married. So Paul contradics himself then, because later he says they should remain (presumabely) single like him.

From other scriptures we know that this would reference those who are called to be marry.

Finish the quote...outside of marriage. Otherwise it's adultery. Doesn't sound like polygamy to me.

The lexican does not say "outside of marriage"

Posted

Flyonthewall

Polygamy was practiced all through out the OT, wives and concubines were given to specific people by the Lord. Nothing in the NT says anything about it being evil or forbidden.

In the Old Testament plural wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant. Under the New Covenant polygamy or wives is fornication, wife is not fornication (1Cor 7:2).

Posted

LDSMusic483

Tell me this Johnny...what is the difference between fornication and adultery

The lexicon says

- fornication - illicit sexual intercourse

- adultery - unlawful intercourse with another's wife

Posted
LDSMusic483

The lexicon says

- fornication - illicit sexual intercourse

- adultery - unlawful intercourse with another's wife

Are you looking at a site or do you have an actual dictionary, because I found your fornication definition online in Strongs Lexicon, but I can't find the same under adultery.

Posted
Flyonthewall

In the Old Testament plural wives was not fornication since they were not under the New Covenant. Under the New Covenant polygamy or wives is fornication, wife is not fornication (1Cor 7:2).

Since Jesus Christ is the author of the New Covenant, show me where He addressed it. In actuality, it is not addressed specifically anywhere, and the best you can do is try and milk a meaning out of a fornication question and response.

Polygamy was an institution reserved for specific people at specific times. Since the people who were being addressed were not involved in polygamy, Paul had no reason to use the plural of "wife".

Posted
LDSMusic483

I am looking at the following site,

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexico...G4202&t=KJV

Oh good, I was hoping you were! Let's look at the article under adultery:

conjugal infidelity. An adulterer was a man who had illicit intercourse with a married or a betrothed woman, and such a woman was an adulteress. Intercourse between a married man and an unmarried woman was fornication. Adultery was regarded as a great social wrong, as well as a great sin.

So...where does it mention polygamy there?

Posted

Flyonthewall

Since Jesus Christ is the author of the New Covenant, show me where He addressed it. In actuality, it is not addressed specifically anywhere, and the best you can do is try and milk a meaning out of a fornication question and response.

He addressed "wife" and fornication in 1Cor 7:2.

Polygamy was an institution reserved for specific people at specific times. Since the people who were being addressed were not involved in polygamy, Paul had no reason to use the plural of "wife".

Those under the New Covenant weren't involved in polygamy because it was fornication.

Posted

LDSMusic483

So...where does it mention polygamy there?

The lexicon shows that fornication and adultery are different in that fornication is simply "illicit sexual intercourse".

Posted
LDSMusic483

The lexicon shows that fornication and adultery are different in that fornication is simply "illicit sexual intercourse".

Great! So if a man illicits sexual intercourse from his wife, he's a fornicator too!

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