Ron Posted June 8, 2005 Share Posted June 8, 2005 I dug up my old mission manual and found a section about "Handling Objections". I can remember reading it on my mission and it was the basis for my skewed version of reality regarding LDS early polygamy.10. All I know about Mormons is that they practiced polygamy. I can't accept that, especially when the scriptures are clear on that point.Answer: The Lord in ancient times has commanded some of his servants to have more than one wife. David, Solomon, Jacob, and Abraham were some of them. (See Gen. 16:3-4;25:1-2;29:23-25;2 Samuel 12:7-8; 1 Kings 11:1-3) Paul said, "to the pure all things are pure, but to the defiled and unbelieving is nothing pure." (Titus 1:15) Plural marriage is a principle of God when he thus commands it. In the early days of the church, God granted that it was lawful to have more than one wife in certain circumstances. We are not certain why the Lord commanded in this revelation that the Church should practise polygamy. However, some history would tell us the following: Less than 2% of all the LDS men were able to do this. It was based according to their righteousness and their ability to handle more than one wife in a mature way. In the early period of the Church of Jeuss Christ of Latter-Day Saints an unusual condition prevailed. More women than men joined the church. This was true of the period at Nauvoo and for a number of years after the arrival of the Saints in Utah. It remained true so long as converts made up the mass of Church membership. The saints were as isolated a people as if they had been on an island of the sea. Marriage outside the church was discouraged. There were not enough men to go around. Back in this period of time, women did not hold down jobs as they do in today's world. It would have been impossible for a single woman to support herself financially. Many women must live and die singly, deprived of the opportunity for development wihch marriage and a home brings. The alternative to all of these circumstances was the God-given practice of plural marriage. The church has not practised polygamy since 1890 (over 95 years ago) and anyone now involved is excommunicated from the church.This doesn't seem to jibe with some of the stuff I have learned recently on the internet including FAIR apologetic articles.My questions is in what parts of the paragraph are watered down, which ones are true, and which parts are outright false information (if any). Link to comment
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