Okrahomer Posted July 6, 2015 Posted July 6, 2015 Posting this question for Tacenda:Heard this just today and read this in this blog....http://newandeverlastingcovenant.com/As_Does_the_Bible.html "NewAndEverlastingCovenant.com was officially launched in early 2012, and in anticipation of this new beginning, I bought a brand new LDS Quad (Quadruple Combination of LDS scriptures) for my study. As I was reading the Introduction to the Book of Mormon in the newly released 2013 digital edition, I noticed the absence of the phrase “as does the Bible.” This prompted me to open my new Quad to compare. My brand new (2011) Book of Mormon, still retained the phrase in the Introduction, confirming that the Bible contains the fullness of the gospel. I was curious about this omission, and so I did a little bit of research. Deseret News, Salt Lake City’s largest newspaper, ran an article in 2007 about the changes in the Book of Mormon’s Introduction. The main focus of the article was addressing how the introduction used to say that the Lamanites were the “principle” ancestors of the American Indians, but DNA evidence has not supported that conclusion. And so now the Introduction says that the Lamanites are simply “among” the ancestors of the American Indians. Also addressed, toward the end of the article, is the removal of the phrase “as does the Bible.” Here is the link. < http://www.deseretnews.com/article/695226008/Debate-renewed-with-change-in-Book-of-Mormon-introduction.html?pg=all>" ME: this is scary. Especially in light of this scripture: Isaiah 40:8 The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever. Why would we treat the Bible as if it's second class and delete "as does the Bible"? The BoM hasn't nearly the evidence of the Bible, IMO. I know, I know, John L. Sorenson worked nearly his whole life proving there is some, so I'll certainly give him that, though I haven't read his latest book. But still, why are we discounting the Bible? Especially when we have 25 thousand ancient manuscripts in Greek, Latin etc.? And even without them, we have early writings that quote the New Testament and correlate. How can JS or anyone else say the Bible was corrupted, where are the corrections by LDS leaders to show this? Or why aren't we just using the JST in our cannon if it is? Maybe Scott Lloyd can explain some of the reasons this portion was deleted in 2013. Sorry if this is a derail, maybe someone can point me to another thread and I'll delete and transfer this there. 1
Calm Posted July 6, 2015 Posted July 6, 2015 Kind of you...I also provided an older thread that was on topic, but this is better.
Okrahomer Posted July 6, 2015 Author Posted July 6, 2015 Kind of you...I also provided an older thread that was on topic, but this is better.Sorry, you must have done that just as I was wrestling with my iPad to get the quote function to work.
Okrahomer Posted July 6, 2015 Author Posted July 6, 2015 (edited) Tacenda: please let me know if you'd rather go with the older thread, and I will lock this one. For what it's worth, I do think the answer to your question has everything to do with the definition of "fulness of the gospel." Please see 3 Nephi 27: 13 - 19.Also, if you haven't already read it, perhaps this FAIR Mormon article would be helpful: http://www.fairmormon.org/perspectives/publications/the-book-of-mormon-and-the-fulness-of-the-gospel Edited July 6, 2015 by Okrahomer
Tacenda Posted July 6, 2015 Posted July 6, 2015 (edited) Talk about kind! Thank you Calmoriah and Okrahomer!! I'll go ahead and delete the other post on the thread that may not be close enough for posting my question. I'll also take a look at the Fairmormon link. Thanks again! ETA: This thread is fine. Edited July 6, 2015 by Tacenda
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