Parallelism In The Book Of Mormon (Yet Again!)

[Bernard Gui]

Once again I bring up the appearance of the parallel poetic form "climax," "gradation parallelism," or "anadiplosis" in the Book of Mormon.

I bring it up once more because I have come to believe it is evidence that Joseph Smith did not author the Book of Mormon. 

 

A gradation parallelism occurs when the same word or words are found in successive clauses or sentences. This duplication of words creates 

a continuation of thought from one sentence to the next, which adds power through petition to the discourse, while at the same time connecting

the lines into an inseparable body....It demonstrates to the reader a progression of ideas but through the recurrence of several identical words....

Many gradation parallelism have an ascension of expression, from a beginning point to a climatic situation.

Donald W. Parry. Poetic Parallelism in the Book of Mormon. The Neal A. Maxwell Institute for Religious Scholarship, 2007, pp. xxvi-xxvii.

 

 

Many examples of gradation parallelism exist in the Book of Mormon. Bro Parry discusses two in his introduction: Moroni 8:25-26 and Mormon 9:12-13.

 

 

....Repentance is unto them

that are under condemnation

and under the curse of a broken law.

And the first fruits of repentance is

baptism;

and baptism cometh by faith unto

the fulfilling of the commandments;

and the fulfilling the commandments bringeth

remission of sins;

and the remission of sins bringeth

meekness and lowliness of heart;

and because of meekness and lowliness of heart cometh

the visitation of the Holy Ghost,

which Comforter filleth with 

hope and perfect love,

which love

endureth by diligence unto prayer,

until the end shall come

when all the saints shall dwell with God.

 

 

 

This passage takes us from the Fall of Adam through Exaltation, with all the necessary steps set plainly in order.

 

Other excellent examples include 2 Nephi 9:25-26; Alma 32:12-14, 41:13-14, and 42:23; Mosiah 2:17-19; Mormon 9:11-13; Moroni 10:20-22 and 32-34.

These examples follow this pattern.....the process of taking man from the Fall, through the Atonement, and on to Exaltation.

 

Here are my questions:

 

How did Joseph Smith learn about this form?

If Joseph Smith were the author of the Book of Mormon, would we expect to see this form in his other writings?

If we should not expect it, why not?

Is anyone aware of this form in the D&C or any other Joseph Smith writings?

If this is unique to the Book of Mormon, is it solid evidence that Joseph was not the author?

Edited January 13, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Mike Reed]

Before you regard this as an evidence of the BoM, make sure you first consider 17th, 18th and early 19th century texts.  Moreover, consider the preaching styles of ministers during the first and second great awakening.  And don't forget that Joseph Smith's father taught literature (or "English Studies", as William Smith called it) and music--both of which would have overlapped into a study of poetry.  Consider also the american revival of arts that followed the American revolution, and those who strove to answer the call of influential visionaries like William Blake in all aspects of the arts, whether it be in painting, literature, music, poetry, scripture, and drama.  A spark ignited in America at this time, which eventually gave birth to our own American Renaissance.  Study the Age of Enlightenment's neo-classical view of "ancient" and "epic-Poetry", which competed with and influenced Romanticism, and preceded and influenced the American Renaissance.  Consider what people thought the place of poetry was in writing spiritual history.  Lastly, consider what folks were saying in Smith's day about the relationship of Prophets to Poets.  Do these things, and then ask yourself, "Why shouldn't we find such poetic elements in the BoM, if it indeed lacks ancient historicity?"  It is a huge task that I am suggesting.  Too huge for most, I suppose.  Perhaps this is why the Old-FARMS boys tended to ignore such studies, and would instead cherry pick ancient parallels, and then throw out the question, "How could Joseph Smith have possibly known about this?"... sadly yet conveniently, rarely (if ever) attempting to answer their own question.

Edited January 13, 2015 by Mike Reed

[Spammer]

Parallelism is the weakest form of evidence and can be used to support any thesis.  Atheists use the approach to prove Jesus didn't exist and his story is rooted in legends from the cults of Mithras and Osiris.

Edited January 13, 2015 by Spammer

[omni]

Once again I bring up the appearance of the parallel poetic form "climax," "gradation parallelism," or "anadiplosis" in the Book of Mormon.

I bring it up once more because I have come to believe it is evidence that Joseph Smith did not author the Book of Mormon.

Many examples of gradation parallelism exist in the Book of Mormon. Bro Parry discusses two in his introduction: Moroni 8:25-26 and Mormon 9:12-13.

This passage takes us from the Fall of Adam through Exaltation, with all the necessary steps set plainly in order.

Other excellent examples include 2 Nephi 9:25-26; Alma 32:12-14, 41:13-14, and 42:23; Mosiah 2:17-19; Mormon 9:11-13; Moroni 10:20-22 and 32-34.

These examples follow this pattern.....the process of taking man from the Fall, through the Atonement, and on to Exaltation.

Here are my questions:

How did Joseph Smith learn about this form?

If Joseph Smith were the author of the Book of Mormon, would we expect to see this form in his other writings?

If we should not expect it, why not?

Is anyone aware of this form in the D&C or any other Joseph Smith writings?

If this is unique to the Book of Mormon, is it solid evidence that Joseph was not the author?

Maybe I'm not understanding correctly, but was this a common form of writing in ancient American cultures? What makes you think that Mormon or any of the other authors would have been educated in this particular form of writing?

[canard78]

Once again I bring up the appearance of the parallel poetic form "climax," "gradation parallelism," or "anadiplosis" in the Book of Mormon.

I bring it up once more because I have come to believe it is evidence that Joseph Smith did not author the Book of Mormon.

Many examples of gradation parallelism exist in the Book of Mormon. Bro Parry discusses two in his introduction: Moroni 8:25-26 and Mormon 9:12-13.

This passage takes us from the Fall of Adam through Exaltation, with all the necessary steps set plainly in order.

Other excellent examples include 2 Nephi 9:25-26; Alma 32:12-14, 41:13-14, and 42:23; Mosiah 2:17-19; Mormon 9:11-13; Moroni 10:20-22 and 32-34.

These examples follow this pattern.....the process of taking man from the Fall, through the Atonement, and on to Exaltation.

Here are my questions:

How did Joseph Smith learn about this form?

If Joseph Smith were the author of the Book of Mormon, would we expect to see this form in his other writings?

If we should not expect it, why not?

Is anyone aware of this form in the D&C or any other Joseph Smith writings?

If this is unique to the Book of Mormon, is it solid evidence that Joseph was not the author?

So if we find an example of this in any of the following would you then consider to not be an evidence supporting Joseph Smith and the Book of Mormon:

- The non-canonised writings of Joseph Smith

- The D&C or PofGP

- 19thC hymns and sermons

- The KJV bible and apocrypha

- Other books and writing of the day

Let me know which of these (if any) you would consider valid sources that invalidates this idea.

[canard78]

While we're waiting for confirmation of which source is permissible.

Here's one in Psalms 121:

1 I will lift up mine eyes unto the hills, from whence cometh my help. 2 My help cometh from the LORD, which made heaven and earth. 3 He will not suffer thy foot to be moved: he that keepeth thee will not slumber . 4 Behold, he that keepeth Israel shall neither slumber nor sleep . 5 The LORD is thy keeper : the LORD is thy shade upon thy right hand. 6 The sun shall not smite thee by day, nor the moon by night. 7 The LORD shall preserve thee from all evil: he shall preserve thy soul. 8 The LORD shall preserve thy going out and thy coming in from this time forth, and even for evermore.

[Mike Reed]

Maybe I'm not understanding correctly, but was this a common form of writing in ancient American cultures? What makes you think that Mormon or any of the other authors would have been educated in this particular form of writing?

Poetic Parallelism (or anadiplosis) is found in some Native American oral tradition.  However, it was also a rhetorical device commonly employed in english literature/speech.  

Here is a book that might be worth reading, particularly the article here highlighted

 

Edited January 14, 2015 by Mike Reed

[Mike Reed]

While we're waiting for confirmation of which source is permissible.

Here's one in Psalms 121:

 

Yes.  The bible has quite a bit of poetic parallelism/anadiplosis.  So does Shakespeare.

Edited January 14, 2015 by Mike Reed

[canard78]

Is this one. Perhaps not as clean as the BoM example.

Section 10 is significant because it predates any of the Book of Mormon currently in use (obviously after the 116 paves) so is a useful (and earliest) illustration of how Joseph captured/wrote down/dictated perceived divine communication where there's no claim of an ancient/Hebrew source.

Like I said, you might not consider this strong enough but it at least shows that Joseph produced non-ancient revelation with a repeated pattern of words in it. (Emphasis added)

34 But behold, here is wisdom, and because I show unto you wisdom, and give you commandments concerning these things, what you shall do, show it not unto the world until you have accomplished the work of translation.

35 Marvel not that I said unto you: Here is wisdom, show it not unto the world--for I said, show it not unto the world, that you may be preserved.

36 Behold, I do not say that you shall not show it unto [/]the righteous;

37 But as you cannot always judge the righteous, or as you cannot always tell the wicked from the righteous, therefore I say unto you, hold your peace until I shall see fit to make all things known unto the world concerning the matter.

38 And now, verily I say unto you, that an account of those things that you have written, which have gone out of your hands, is engraven upon the plates of Nephi;

39 Yea, and you remember it was said in those writings that a more particular account was given of these things upon the plates of Nephi.

40 And now, because the account which is engraven upon the plates of Nephi is more particular concerning the things which, in my wisdom, I would bring to the knowledge of the people in this account--

D&C 10:34-40

http://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/10?lang=eng

[teddyaware]

Before you regard this as an evidence of the BoM, make sure you first consider 17th, 18th and early 19th century texts.  Moreover, consider the preaching styles of ministers during the first and second great awakening.  And don't forget that Joseph Smith's father taught literature (or "English Studies", as William Smith called it) and music--both of which would have overlapped into a study of poetry.  Consider also the american revival of arts that followed the American revolution, and those who strove to answer the call of influential visionaries like William Blake in all aspects of the arts, whether it be in painting, literature, music, poetry, scripture, and drama.  A spark ignited in America at this time, which eventually gave birth to our own American Renaissance.  Study the Age of Enlightenment's neo-classical view of "ancient" and "epic-Poetry", which competed with and influenced Romanticism, and preceded and influenced the American Renaissance.  Consider what people thought the place of poetry was in writing spiritual history.  Lastly, consider what folks were saying in Smith's day about the relationship of Prophets to Poets.  Do these things, and then ask yourself, "Why shouldn't we find such poetic elements in the BoM, if it indeed lacks ancient historicity?"  It is a huge task that I am suggesting.  Too huge for most, I suppose.  Perhaps this is why the Old-FARMS boys tended to ignore such studies, and would instead cherry pick ancient parallels, and then throw out the question, "How could Joseph Smith have possibly known about this?"... sadly yet conveniently, rarely (if ever) attempting to answer their own question.

 

Hello again, Mike:

 

In light of the above, do you believe the Book of Mormon is a true account of ancient American followers of Christ?

[Mike Reed]

American poet Randall Jarrell employed it beautifully.

[Mike Reed]

I'd recommend also reading Bruce A. Rosenberg's "The Art of the American Folk Preacher" (Oxford University Press: 1970).

[Mike Reed]

Hello again, Mike:

 

In light of the above, do you believe the Book of Mormon is a true account of ancient American followers of Christ?

Hello Teddyaware.  I am afraid that this thread isn't about me.  It is about Joseph Smith, and whether he could have authored the aforementioned poetic parallelism.  I think it is quite obvious that he could have.

Edited January 14, 2015 by Mike Reed

[canard78]

Before you regard this as an evidence of the BoM, make sure you first consider 17th, 18th and early 19th century texts. Moreover, consider the preaching styles of ministers during the first and second great awakening. And don't forget that Joseph Smith's father taught literature (or "English Studies", as William Smith called it) and music--both of which would have overlapped into a study of poetry. Consider also the american revival of arts that followed the American revolution, and those who strove to answer the call of influential visionaries like William Blake in all aspects of the arts, whether it be in painting, literature, music, poetry, scripture, and drama. A spark ignited in America at this time, which eventually gave birth to our own American Renaissance. Study the Age of Enlightenment's neo-classical view of "ancient" and "epic-Poetry", which competed with and influenced Romanticism, and preceded and influenced the American Renaissance. Consider what people thought the place of poetry was in writing spiritual history. Lastly, consider what folks were saying in Smith's day about the relationship of Prophets to Poets. Do these things, and then ask yourself, "Why shouldn't we find such poetic elements in the BoM, if it indeed lacks ancient historicity?" It is a huge task that I am suggesting. Too huge for most, I suppose. Perhaps this is why the Old-FARMS boys tended to ignore such studies, and would instead cherry pick ancient parallels, and then throw out the question, "How could Joseph Smith have possibly known about this?"... sadly yet conveniently, rarely (if ever) attempting to answer their own question.

To your last statement two, to put it another way:

"He who knows only his own side of the case knows little of that. His reasons may be good, and no one may have been able to refute them. But if he is equally unable to refute the reasons on the opposite side, if he does not so much as know what they are, he has no ground for preferring either opinion..." John Stuart Mill

[Mike Reed]

To your last statement two, to put it another way:

 

Yes!  Great quote.  Thanks.

Edited January 14, 2015 by Mike Reed

[teddyaware]

This thread isn't about me.  It is about Joseph Smith, and whether he could have authored the aforementioned poetic parallelism.  I think it is quite obvious that he could have.

 

Sorry for prying, Mike. I've got one of those enquiring minds (some call it being too nosey) Anyway, I just did a Google search and that provided the answer. There's just no privacy anymore!

Edited January 14, 2015 by teddyaware

[Mike Reed]

Sorry for prying, Mike. I've got one of those enquiring minds (some call it being too nosey) Anyway, I just did a Google search and that provided the answer. There's just no privacy anymore!

Ha!  I am quite open about my beliefs or lack thereof, so long as I am asked about them at appropriate times (such times that wouldn't derail discussions).  If you'd like to now more, PM me and I'd be happy to talk.

[teddyaware]

Ha!  I am quite open about my beliefs or lack thereof, so long as I am asked about them at appropriate times (such times that wouldn't derail discussions).  If you'd like to now more, PM me and I'd be happy to talk.

 

I'm not allowed to PM board participants, Mike. I've been on what's called "limited" status around here for about a year. That means I've got a limited number of posts I'm allowed to make in a given number of hours; plus I've been left incommunicado when it comes to PMs, but not by choice. I envy your "contributor" status.  Enjoy the fact that you're considered a first class citizen on the MD&DB .  All the best...

[Bernard Gui]

Before you regard this as an evidence of the BoM, make sure you first consider 17th, 18th and early 19th century texts.  Moreover, consider the preaching styles of ministers during the first and second great awakening.  And don't forget that Joseph Smith's father taught literature (or "English Studies", as William Smith called it) and music--both of which would have overlapped into a study of poetry.  Consider also the american revival of arts that followed the American revolution, and those who strove to answer the call of influential visionaries like William Blake in all aspects of the arts, whether it be in painting, literature, music, poetry, scripture, and drama.  A spark ignited in America at this time, which eventually gave birth to our own American Renaissance.  Study the Age of Enlightenment's neo-classical view of "ancient" and "epic-Poetry", which competed with and influenced Romanticism, and preceded and influenced the American Renaissance.  Consider what people thought the place of poetry was in writing spiritual history.  Lastly, consider what folks were saying in Smith's day about the relationship of Prophets to Poets.  Do these things, and then ask yourself, "Why shouldn't we find such poetic elements in the BoM, if it indeed lacks ancient historicity?"  It is a huge task that I am suggesting.  Too huge for most, I suppose.  Perhaps this is why the Old-FARMS boys tended to ignore such studies, and would instead cherry pick ancient parallels, and then throw out the question, "How could Joseph Smith have possibly known about this?"... sadly yet conveniently, rarely (if ever) attempting to answer their own question.

I'm not regarding it as evidence of the Book of Mormon.....but that Joseph Smith did not author it. 

Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Bernard Gui]

Parallelism is the weakest form of evidence and can be used to support any thesis. Atheists use the approach to prove Jesus didn't exist and his story is rooted in legends from the cults of Mithras and Osiris.

I don't believe you understood what I am saying. Could you check it again? I'm not advocating for any kind of historical parallelism, but the use of a specific form of poetic parallelism used in the Book of Mormon. Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Bernard Gui]

Maybe I'm not understanding correctly, but was this a common form of writing in ancient American cultures? What makes you think that Mormon or any of the other authors would have been educated in this particular form of writing?

Interesting comment, and I have thought a lot about it. In my opinion based on how this is used with specific intent by several writers in the Book of Mormon, I believe it gives some insight into Nephite thought. My questions, however, are about Joseph Smith. Are you aware of any examples in his other writings? Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Bernard Gui]

 

So if we find an example of this in any of the following would you then consider to not be an evidence supporting Joseph Smith and the Book of Mormon:

- The non-canonised writings of Joseph Smith

- The D&C or PofGP

- 19thC hymns and sermons

- The KJV bible and apocrypha

- Other books and writing of the day

Let me know which of these (if any) you would consider valid sources that invalidates this idea.

Please read my questions. I already specified that.

Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Bernard Gui]

While we're waiting for confirmation of which source is permissible.

Here's one in Psalms 121:

Interesting, but this example is nothing like those I cited in the Book of Mormon. Specifically, they address the steps that man must take to go from the Fall of Adam to Exaltation, and are set forth in the logical and correct progression. I don't see that kind of gradation and purpose in your example. Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui

[Bernard Gui]

Yes.  The bible has quite a bit of poetic parallelism/anadiplosis.  So does Shakespeare.

Not in the form that I have shown. My question is whether or not it exists in other

Joseph Smith writings, not the bible or Shakespeare.

[Bernard Gui]

Is this one. Perhaps not as clean as the BoM example.

Section 10 is significant because it predates any of the Book of Mormon currently in use (obviously after the 116 paves) so is a useful (and earliest) illustration of how Joseph captured/wrote down/dictated perceived divine communication where there's no claim of an ancient/Hebrew source.

Like I said, you might not consider this strong enough but it at least shows that Joseph produced non-ancient revelation with a repeated pattern of words in it. (Emphasis added)

D&C 10:34-40

http://www.lds.org/scriptures/dc-testament/dc/10?lang=eng

No, that is certainly not strong enough. Repeated words are not gradations of thought leading from one point to a conclusion such as all the ones I cited. Do you have any example of that kind of graded parallelism from Joseph Smith? Edited January 14, 2015 by Bernard Gui