zerinus Posted February 25, 2010 Posted February 25, 2010 Are you saying that symbols, etc. have some sort of inherent pagan/falseness or divineness encoded in them by their initial creation that makes them appropriate or inappropriate to use in the future?How does this relate than to language since essentially the hieroglyphs, etc. were at heart a language just like the English I am using to compose and convey this post?I was referring more to the images in the facsimiles than to the hieroglyphs which constitute Egyptian writing. But I am not really sore exactly what kind of criticisms anti-Mormons make when they accuse the Book of Abraham of mixing paganism with scripture. If they include the use the Egyptian language (which would be absurd), then that would also be included in my discussio.
HiJolly Posted February 26, 2010 Posted February 26, 2010 It has not been demonstrated yet, and the arguments that David and others have presented have failed. Unbelievable. What they call "influence" is not the same thing as what we observe in Paul quoting from a pagan prophet. If their arguments were proved true, it would undermine the scriptural and revelatory nature of biblical texts. It is a different kind of argument.The arguments David has presented *are* true. HiJolly
Calm Posted February 26, 2010 Posted February 26, 2010 If their arguments were proved true, it would undermine the scriptural and revelatory nature of biblical texts. Why?
Ron Beron Posted February 26, 2010 Posted February 26, 2010 'zerinus'writes.I am sure remnants of true religion remain in all pagan religions, which does not really contradict what I was saying. I was more or less saying the same kind of thing. Nevertheless, in common parlance we associate
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