katherine the great Posted November 20, 2008 Posted November 20, 2008 A good example is the Neanderthals. The small differences in humans(we're smaller and lighter) allowed us to run faster and further in the changing European environments(more open areas and less dense woods). It allowed humans to be able to out run and therefore out hunt the Neanderthals. Slowly we just outlived and out reproduced them. Evolution works.Plus, they were ugly. When they saw how beautiful our species was, they gave up...
semlogo Posted November 20, 2008 Author Posted November 20, 2008 A good example is the Neanderthals. The small differences in humans(we're smaller and lighter) allowed us to run faster and further in the changing European environments(more open areas and less dense woods). It allowed humans to be able to out run and therefore out hunt the Neanderthals. Slowly we just outlived and out reproduced them. Evolution works.Yes. Also, we require much fewer calories per day than they did. Big advantage.
katherine the great Posted November 20, 2008 Posted November 20, 2008 Yes. Also, we require much fewer calories per day than they did. Big advantage.I must confess that the only animal I really have an interest in seeing cloned someday is the Neanderthal. (immoral and unethical, I know...)
semlogo Posted November 20, 2008 Author Posted November 20, 2008 I must confess that the only animal I really have an interest in seeing cloned someday is the Neanderthal. (immoral and unethical, I know...)There's another ball of wax. Although I'm not sure why cloning would be inherently unethical, as long as the person cloned is not treated as an organ bank or science project, but rather as a person. I wonder how intelligent a Neanderthal would be if raised among modern humans.
J.S. Mill Posted November 20, 2008 Posted November 20, 2008 If I recall correctly, Neanderthals actually had a larger cranial capacity than modern humans do. They apparently didn't have the gift of language we do, though (and this is an important element of our own intelligence) so it's hard to tell exactly how they'd fare.
katherine the great Posted November 20, 2008 Posted November 20, 2008 If I recall correctly, Neanderthals actually had a larger cranial capacity than modern humans do. They apparently didn't have the gift of language we do, though (and this is an important element of our own intelligence) so it's hard to tell exactly how they'd fare.We really aren't sure what type of language they had but it is now known that they did have a hyoid bone so there's no reason they couldn't have spoken.
J.S. Mill Posted November 20, 2008 Posted November 20, 2008 You're right-- interesting.Here's another discovery I wasn't aware of: http://www.nytimes.com/2007/10/19/science/....html?ref=world
Bee Eff Posted November 21, 2008 Posted November 21, 2008 If I recall correctly, Neanderthals actually had a larger cranial capacity than modern humans do. They apparently didn't have the gift of language we do, though (and this is an important element of our own intelligence) so it's hard to tell exactly how they'd fare.The determining factor in intelligence is density and not size though. And the brain to body mass ratio would have had an impact as well, although I don't know the measurements to be able to conclude anything. If anyone has the measurements, here is the formula:Em(brain) = 0.12m(body)^(2/3)
katherine the great Posted November 21, 2008 Posted November 21, 2008 The determining factor in intelligence is density and not size though. And the brain to body mass ratio would have had an impact as well, although I don't know the measurements to be able to conclude anything. If anyone has the measurements, here is the formula:Em(brain) = 0.12m(body)^(2/3)I don't think it is that simple at all. I think that different parts of the brain are responsible for different cognitive functions. Our large and well developed frontal lobe almost certainly gave us advantages that the Neanderthal didn't have. I think that explains why the Neanderthal lived basically the same lifestyle and used the same tools for over a hundred thousand years while modern humans were constantly moving, creating and adapting to new situations. This is my opinion anyway...
thesometimesaint Posted November 21, 2008 Posted November 21, 2008 I don't know of any conclusive proof that they spoke, but culturally it is a good supposition. If they did they did in a very high woman's voice.
semlogo Posted November 21, 2008 Author Posted November 21, 2008 I don't know of any conclusive proof that they spoke, but culturally it is a good supposition. If they did they did in a very high woman's voice.Hmm, there go all my grunting caveman stereotypes. Apparently they all sounded like Emo Philips?
Bee Eff Posted November 21, 2008 Posted November 21, 2008 I don't think it is that simple at all. I think that different parts of the brain are responsible for different cognitive functions. Our large and well developed frontal lobe almost certainly gave us advantages that the Neanderthal didn't have. I think that explains why the Neanderthal lived basically the same lifestyle and used the same tools for over a hundred thousand years while modern humans were constantly moving, creating and adapting to new situations. This is my opinion anyway...A step towards determining the truth of your hypothesis is the equation I provided. However, I believe you are incorrect, here is a citation to argue against the frontal lobe argument you present:Semendeferi, K., Lu, A., Schenker, N. and Damasio, H. Humans and great apes share a large frontal cortex. Nature Neuroscience, 5:272-276, 2002.
katherine the great Posted November 21, 2008 Posted November 21, 2008 Hmm, there go all my grunting caveman stereotypes. Apparently they all sounded like Emo Philips?Haha! It just seems wrong doesn't it? Another argument in favor of cloning to answer our questions.
BCSpace Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 But why would you take it to be metaphorical? Do you take the statements of the First Presidency on chastity or abortion to be metaphorical? If not, why do you treat the two differently, when both purport to be messages from you Creator, and to come from the same epistemological source?Because of the lack of details. We know exactly what chastity means. We don't know what it means if God speaks and Adam comes into existence. Does he appear out of thin air? Does it suddenly rain on the ground and a man made of clay appears? Is it evolution?
J.S. Mill Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 The Genesis story says that God created Adam in one day. This clearly precludes evolution by natural selection, unless you want to take a non-literal view of "a day", which is no less ridiculous than taking a non-literal view of "sexual intercourse".
Bee Eff Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 The Genesis story says that God created Adam in one day. This clearly precludes evolution by natural selection, unless you want to take a non-literal view of "a day", which is no less ridiculous than taking a non-literal view of "sexual intercourse".Yowm Definition:day, time, year day (as opposed to night) day (24 hour period) a working day, a day's journey days, lifetime (pl.) time, period (general) year temporal referencesDefinition 6 is a literal definition of day as used in Genesis.
J.S. Mill Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 Genesis says that the sixth day (on which Adam was made) is composed of a morning and an evening. What literal definitions of "morning" and "evening" do you have to correspond to an old-Earth creation story?
BCSpace Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 The Genesis story says that God created Adam in one day. This clearly precludes evolution by natural selection, unless you want to take a non-literal view of "a day", which is no less ridiculous than taking a non-literal view of "sexual intercourse".How so? We know what is meant by sexual intercourse. We don't know that day means a 24 hour period or an epoch of time.
J.S. Mill Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 Also, the creation story in Genesis is all out of order. Birds before land animals? Not so. Whales before the beasts of the earth? Laughably inconsistent with the fossil record.How so? We know what is meant by sexual intercourse. We don't know that day means a 24 hour period or an epoch of time.One evening and one morning = one 24 hour period, more or less. Is this correct?
BCSpace Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 Genesis says that the sixth day (on which Adam was made) is composed of a morning and an evening. What literal definitions of "morning" and "evening" do you have to correspond to an old-Earth creation story?Given the lack of detail, I don't think we are obligated come up with any correspondence. However it may just be as simple as the beginning and the end of a day.Considering also LDS doctrine on the subject; that it is wrong to attribute a specific age of the earth to LDS doctrine, it seems that the Church itself has come to a similar conclusion, that there is not enough information.
J.S. Mill Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.I bet this wouldn't be so controversial if it didn't have unattractive implications for the consistency of your belief system.
BCSpace Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 How so? We know what is meant by sexual intercourse. We don't know that day means a 24 hour period or an epoch of time.One evening and one morning = one 24 hour period, more or less. Is this correct?Not if it simply delineates a beginning and an end.
J.S. Mill Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 Given the lack of detail, I don't think we are obligated come up with any correspondence. However it may just be as simple as the beginning and the end of a day.Considering also LDS doctrine on the subject; that it is wrong to attribute a specific age of the earth to LDS doctrine, it seems that the Church itself has come to a similar conclusion, that there is not enough information.So the Church itself thinks of Genesis 1 as metaphorical? That just sweeps things under the rug; it doesn't solve the problem you face.
BCSpace Posted November 26, 2008 Posted November 26, 2008 5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.I bet this wouldn't be so controversial if it didn't have unattractive implications for the consistency of your belief system.Not if you understand what the next verses could mean. Btw, what do you think it means to divide the waters from the waters? Are you familiar with what waters could mean? The division of the waters from the firmament? etc.
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