Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 The Same way John the Baptist was ordained. He got his Priesthood from his father.So why didn't Aaron get his priesthood from his father as well then?
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 He Either got it from his father inlaw or his Hebrew Father.Moses. Son of Amram (Ex. 6:16, 18, 20; 1 Chr. 6:1–3) Amram Amram. A Levite, son of Kohath (Num. 3:17–19; 1 Chr. 6:2–3, 18); married Jochebed and became father of Moses and Aaron (Ex. 6:18–20) and Miriam (Num. 26:59; 1 Chr. 6:3).As we see the Levite Priesthood predate Moses and Aaron.Exactly. So why didn't Aaron receive the priesthood from their father Amram since they are brothers?
LeSellers Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) The Same way John the Baptist was ordained. He got his Priesthood from his father.He Either got it from his father inlaw or his Hebrew Father.Has anyone read Doctrine and Covenants 84?!?!?Jesus plainly tells Joseph that Moses was ordained by Jethro and that John was ordained by an angel.6 And the sons of Moses, according to the Holy Priesthood which he received under the hand of his father-in-law, Jethro;7 And Jethro received it under the hand of Caleb;8 And Caleb received it under the hand of Elihu;9 And Elihu under the hand of Jeremy;10 And Jeremy under the hand of Gad;11 And Gad under the hand of Esaias;12 And Esaias received it under the hand of God.26 And the lesser priesthood continued, which priesthood holdeth the key of the ministering of angels and the preparatory gospel; 27 Which gospel is the gospel of repentance and of baptism, and the remission of sins, and the law of carnal commandments, which the Lord in his wrath caused to continue with the house of Aaron among the children of Israel until John, whom God raised up, being filled with the Holy Ghost from his mother’s womb. 28 For he was baptized while he was yet in his childhood, and was ordained by the angel of God at the time he was eight days old unto this power, to overthrow the kingdom of the Jews, and to make straight the way of the Lord before the face of his people, to prepare them for the coming of the Lord, in whose hand is given all power.Lehi Edited October 13, 2011 by LeSellers
Zakuska Posted October 13, 2011 Author Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) Has anyone read Doctrine and Covenants 84?!?!?Jesus plainly tells Joseph that Moses was ordained by Jethro and that John was ordained by an angel.LehiThank you Lehi. Jesterss seems to want Bible only though. Thats why I try and stick to that.As I noted Moses father Amram was also a Levite. So moses had rights to both the Aaronic and Melc. Priesthoods by lineage. Thats why Christ had the Melc. Priesthood too.Thats the whole point being brought up here... Hebrews 7:1414 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood. He is infering the Jesus got his Priesthood from another line. Edited October 13, 2011 by Zakuska
Maidservant Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 According to Lawrence Gardner:"The story can now be progressed by considering the oldest Grant of Arms in sovereign history - an entitlement which denoted the Messianic Dragon bloodline for all time. The Sumerians referred to this insignia as the Gra-al, but biblical history refers to it as the Mark of Cain. This Mark is portrayed by the modern Church as if it were some form of curse, but it is not defined as such in the Bible. Genesis actually relates that, having got into an argument with Jehovah over a matter of sovereign observance, Cain feared for his life. Consequently, the Lord placed a mark upon Cain, swearing sevenfold vengeance against his enemies....The Sumerian Gra-al, which biblical tradition calls the Mark of Cain, was an emblem dignified as the Cup of the Waters, or the Rosi-Crucis (the Dew Cup), and it was identified in all records (including those of Egypt, Phoenicia and the Hebrew annals) as being an upright, centered Red Cross within a Circle. Throughout the ages it was developed and embellished, but it has always remained essentially the same and is recognized as being the original symbol of the Holy Grail."Thanks, -Wade Englund-Wowie. Wowie.It does say straight up in Genesis that the mark was a mark for protection so that he would not be killed, which is interesting since you would think God would want to exact the death penalty for a murder especially a murder done from the standpoint of a combination.In any case, the Book of Jasher is very interesting on the matter of Cain. It does speak of a curse, but the curse is like this: "And it shall be when thou shalt till it, it shall no more give thee its strength as in the beginning, for thorns and thistles shall the ground produce, and thou shalt be moving and wandering in the earth until the day of thy death." Which is an echo of the curse of Adam, no different in fact, so what is the point of repeating it as a curse to murder when it should already have been in place a la Adam's transgression? [intuhresting . . . curioser and curioser . . .]As far as Cain being cast out, he was not cast out that far since all of Adam's descendants remained in knowledge of one another in terms of society (according to the Book of Jasher), and in fact, Lamech a descendant of Cain who married Adah and Zillah, these women were descendants of Seth (Seth-Enosh-Cainan-Adah and Zillah), so that when Tubal-Cain was born, he was descendant of both Seth and Cain.So whatever Cain's condition, and what it may or may not have had to do with skin color (I think absolutely nothing), or even with priesthood (when a man is excommunicated, do we excommunicate his kids permanently through the ages?), it did not prevent intermarriage, at least according to this record (The Book of Jasher).altersteve:Now-a-days we have a pretty well established method of dealing with the Priesthood holders who murder for gain. I'm not sure Adam did too, but it isn't beyond the possible/probable. It does make sense for him to leave Adams Priesthood family, and take a wife not of the Priesthood lineage of Adam.Well, he married one of his brother's daughters, whoever that would be. Moses 5:28.
Zakuska Posted October 13, 2011 Author Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) So why didn't Aaron get his priesthood from his father as well then?Who says that he didnt? Moses and Aaron were both Levites by blood. Edited October 13, 2011 by Zakuska
Zakuska Posted October 13, 2011 Author Posted October 13, 2011 On topic token:The curse of Cain was he was made the wandering bigfoot..LOL. Don't you just love all those Legends.
shalamabobbi Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) LOL. Don't you just love all those Legends.Careful, one of our board members may fire back with in support for of this belief.. Edited October 13, 2011 by shalamabobbi
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 I found a biblical reference to Moses being a priest....Psalm 99:6 6 Moses and Aaron were among his priests, Samuel was among those who called on his name; they called on the LORD and he answered them.
Zakuska Posted October 13, 2011 Author Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) I found a biblical reference to Moses being a priest....Psalm 99:6 6 Moses and Aaron were among his priests, Samuel was among those who called on his name;they called on the LORD and he answered them.Good find so now. were they of the order of Aaron or the order of Melq. and did they get the Priesthood from their Father Amram or from his Father inlaw Jethro? Edited October 13, 2011 by Zakuska
altersteve Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) You're going to have to paint me a biblical picture here, on this one, because this is where I am seriously not understanding how you are getting from point A to point B. Where, in the bible, does it denote that Moses is a priesthood holder? So in order to answer this question, you're going to need to show me how one gets from being a prophet to one also being someone who holds the priesthood. Lehi has drawn some references but I still didn't see the connection. It was from Eleazor being clothed and somehow the connection can be referenced to laying on of hands (even though its not).. So paint me a picture here.You don't understand it because all you have is the Bible, which is not 100% clear on this subject. With modern revelation it is perfectly clear how one gets "from point A to point B." I have already given you several references on the subject, which you have not even addressed. What exactly don't you understand about someone both being a prophet and holding the priesthood?I would strongly recommend going to lds.org, searching "priesthood," and studying the information you find. I hope you consider doing so. Edited October 13, 2011 by altersteve
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 Who says that he didnt? Moses and Aaron were both Levites by blood.The fact that we know that Moses conferred the priesthood to Aaron.
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 Good find so now. were they of the order of Aaron or the order of Melq. and did they get the Priesthood from their Father Maram or from his Father inlaw Jethro.Well since the aaronic priesthood came from aaron, then he would be of the aaronic priesthood. But since Moses is not, and they are brothers, I don't know what order his would be of. Other than one ordained by God.
Zakuska Posted October 13, 2011 Author Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) The fact that we know that Moses conferred the priesthood to Aaron.I wouldnt say he confered the Priethood to Aaron. He created a new order with different responsibilities of the already exiting order of Melq. Which had been with them the whole time they were in Egypt. Edited October 13, 2011 by Zakuska
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 I wouldnt say he confered the Priethood to Aaron. He created a new order of the already exiting order.But we do know that it was Moses who made Aaron and his son priests. As God asked him to make them priests.
Jesterss Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 (edited) You don't understand it because all you have is the Bible, which is not 100% clear on this subject. With modern revelation it is perfectly clear how one gets "from point A to point B." I have already given you several references on the subject, which you have not even addressed. What exactly don't you understand about someone both being a prophet and holding the priesthood?I would strongly recommend going to lds.org, searching "priesthood," and studying the information you find. I hope you consider doing so.Because now I have found that Moses was actually a priest. So you don't go from being prophet or teacher or anything else to being included in the priesthood, unless you are in fact a priest. Hence the nomenclature, priesthood. One must be of a priestly nature in order to be in the priesthood.Edit: It's not that I'm not open to learning.... I learn something new every day about the bible... You seem to take everything as if I am just completely dismissing your points.. I haven't, but you always do mine by claiming you are most definitely right and you have modern revelation to prove it, which proves nothing other than what you believe... Edited October 13, 2011 by Jesterss
altersteve Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 Because now I have found that Moses was actually a priest. So you don't go from being prophet or teacher or anything else to being included in the priesthood, unless you are in fact a priest. Hence the nomenclature, priesthood. One must be of a priestly nature in order to be in the priesthood.Prophet is not a priesthood office. But as I've said, and as all of us have said, you can in fact be something other than a priest and hold the priesthood. Again, take the time to do what I've suggested and study some of the things in the standard works and on lds.org, and you might learn something.
Ares Posted October 13, 2011 Posted October 13, 2011 This thread is very off topic. Start a new one to discuss priesthood authority in the Bible and LDS doctrine...
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