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D&C revelations in the voice of God


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Posted

As we've been going through the D&C this year, one thing I keep coming back to is how Joseph Smith wrote most of the revelations in the D&C in the voice of God (or God in first person, or whatever the proper way to phrase the concept is). What do we make of this practice?

In most LDS commentaries (in the classroom or in other publications), we almost exclusively comment as if God really did speak the exact words Joseph wrote down. As I become more aware of the idea of scriptural errancy, I find myself often wondering if God really said the things that have been attributed to Him. In this respect, this isn't really any different than when I ask myself about things attributed to God in the Old or New Testament. It often feels similar to what happens when I read the gospels where each author attributes words and actions to Christ and then we are left to grapple with what is historical and what is propaganda (for lack of a better word).

In another direction, as I spot check Community of Christ's D&C, I see that they perpetuated the tradition of writing revelations in the voice of God until nearly the 21st century. It quickly becomes apparent that writing something down in the voice of God does not automatically mean that God spoke those words or gave that revelation.

Any thoughts on the prophet's practice of writing his revelations in the voice of God? Any 19th century historical context that might contextualize the practice? Other thoughts?

Posted
3 hours ago, MrShorty said:

As we've been going through the D&C this year, one thing I keep coming back to is how Joseph Smith wrote most of the revelations in the D&C in the voice of God (or God in first person, or whatever the proper way to phrase the concept is). What do we make of this practice?

In most LDS commentaries (in the classroom or in other publications), we almost exclusively comment as if God really did speak the exact words Joseph wrote down. As I become more aware of the idea of scriptural errancy, I find myself often wondering if God really said the things that have been attributed to Him. In this respect, this isn't really any different than when I ask myself about things attributed to God in the Old or New Testament. It often feels similar to what happens when I read the gospels where each author attributes words and actions to Christ and then we are left to grapple with what is historical and what is propaganda (for lack of a better word).

In another direction, as I spot check Community of Christ's D&C, I see that they perpetuated the tradition of writing revelations in the voice of God until nearly the 21st century. It quickly becomes apparent that writing something down in the voice of God does not automatically mean that God spoke those words or gave that revelation.

Any thoughts on the prophet's practice of writing his revelations in the voice of God? Any 19th century historical context that might contextualize the practice? Other thoughts?

I agree that writing something down in the voice of God does not automatically mean that God spoke those words or gave that revelation.

Fortunately, we learn the doctrine of Christ from a variety of sources along life’s path and can freely try it out when haply we find it.

I see that Pyreaux provided a context for Joseph Smith's practice. With regards to the theology of meditation, if you were to edit Joseph Smith’s revelations (or the Book of Mormon) removing “voice of God” text, would their meaning change; would they convey any other than the voice, will, mind, word or power of God for abiding in the doctrine of Christ (potential questions over points of doctrine aside)?

Regarding oral tradition and "voice", I think it quite possible that Jesus’ disciples remembered themes, teachings, and style that Jesus gave them after His resurrection (much like He did with the Nephites) and by revelation many decades later. I would go so far as to say that He originally wrote down many of His teachings and sermons.

Posted
19 hours ago, Pyreaux said:

Hearing a Voice ≠ Hearing Words

The heart of the question, ancient prophets themselves often experienced revelation in non-verbal visions, impressions, or an overwhelming sense of God’s will. Translating that into words may require contributing their own language, imagery, and culture. That’s why Isaiah sounds different from Jeremiah, or why Joseph’s revelations are in King James English.

To say prophets could "make up" the words isn’t to accuse them of invention, but to recognize that human language is the necessary vehicle for ineffable divine encounter. God’s "voice" in this sense is real, but non-verbal - more like understanding, imagery, or directive force that must be dressed in words.

 

As Grant Underwood (JSPP editor) would say, Joseph Smith was not God's fax machine. And I think the same rational of what Joseph "heard" should be applied to what he "saw"--which I think best explains the various First Vision accounts.

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