GoCeltics

Joseph Fielding Smith might have concluded procreative functions of the mortal body continue with resurrection into a celestial body. I don't know why resurrected bodies (physical) of flesh and bones (Heavenly Father and Mother) had children with spirit bodies.

Drawing upon the terminology Joseph Fielding Smith used and within LDS thinking, what functions of the celestial body enable the power of procreation for Heavenly Father and Mother?

Is gender eternal or gained in the pre-mortal world when as is taught, people are begotten and born of heavenly parents before coming to earth?

Thanks if you could provide a few.

Could someone explain this teaching from Doctrines of Salvation. PROCREATION LIMITED TO CELESTIAL BODIES. Some will gain celestial bodies with all the powers of exaltation and eternal increase. These bodies will shine like the sun as our Savior's does, as described by John. Those who enter the terrestrial kingdom will have terrestrial bodies, and they will not shine like the sun, but they will be more glorious than the bodies of those who receive the telestial glory. In both of these kingdoms there will be changes in the bodies and limitations. They will not have the power of increase, neither the power or nature to live as husbands and wives, for this will be denied them and they cannot increase. Those who receive the exaltation in the celestial kingdom will have the “continuation of the seeds forever.” They will live in the family relationship. In the terrestrial and in the telestial kingdoms there will be no marriage. Those who enter there will remain “separately and singly” forever. Some of the functions in the celestial body will not appear in the terrestrial body, neither in the telestial body, and the power of procreation will be removed. I take it that men and women will, in these kingdoms, be just what the so-called Christian world expects us all to be -- neither man nor woman, merely immortal beings having received the resurrection. Matthew 22:30 says “For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.” Joseph Fielding Smith appears to suggest the “so-called Christian world” believed individuals who do not bear children after the Resurrection would cease to be regarded as male or female. Which, if any, Christian theologians or traditions have actually taught such an interpretation? Are angels understood to be without sexual orientation?

“And of Zebulun he said, Rejoice, Zebulun, in thy going out; and, Issachar, in thy tents. They shall call the people unto the mountain; there they shall offer sacrifices of righteousness: for they shall suck of the abundance of the seas, and of treasures hid in the sand.” This celebrates how Zebulun and Issachar will enjoy material blessings from the sea and land, worship God rightly, and draw other peoples to God through their faithfulness and prosperity. Where you put that mountain, seas, and sand is up to you.

"and his border shall be unto Zidon" doesn't seem far beyond. Maybe you're thinking about Sidon in the Book of Mormon or that Zebulun will inherit all coastlines which can serve as havens for ships.

The words spoken about Zebulun appear to have some future fulfillment (after this blessing or yet future from us) otherwise the blessing would not make sense. The kingship fell upon Judah, the context being Israel of course (Genesis 49:10). The blessing upon Jacob which prevailed over his progenitors (Genesis 49:26) did not include a priesthood or land in the United States. "Have prevailed" is denoting what Jacob had then, not land he would not have in the future. Everlasting hills, if you want to move it from geographical locations outside Israel to the United States, could also be other lands that have high mountains or ranges of hills. You might also want to consider Ezekiel chapters 47 and 48.

“Zebulun shall dwell at the haven of the sea; and he shall be for an haven of ships; and his border shall be unto Zidon.” This blessing suggests that Zebulun’s descendants would live near the sea (Mediterranean) and be involved in maritime activities. The reference to Zidon (or Sidon) indicates that their territory would extend toward this ancient Phoenician city, known for its trade and seafaring. The phrase “utmost bound of the everlasting hills” in Genesis 49:26 (for Joseph) is a poetic expression and isn’t specifically referring to a geographical location like the United States. It’s more about conveying the idea of vastness and enduring blessings. You see a similar structure for the blessings upon Issachar, Dan, and Benjamin. I think some interpretations and teachings within the Latter-day Saint tradition may have connected this phrase to the Americas.

Including @Tacenda How is the prophecy of Doctrine and Covenants 45:65-69 fulfilled with those Latter-day Saints who will be alive to see the Second Coming of Christ if none of those events in Missouri happen?

Won’t Latter-day Saints now living in Salt Lake City and other places in the United States “gather their riches” so they can “purchase an inheritance” in Missouri and assist in building the New Jerusalem in order to seek safety and refuge from war and other calamities leading up to the Second Coming as Doctrine and Covenants 45:65-69 teaches?

Why not simply say “restoration of the Twelve Tribes” then?

Did the tribe of Ephraim and Judah always remain in the southern part throughout history?

How did you recognize the entities of the other two tribes? When did the inclusion of the Ten Tribes in the patriarchal blessings begin?

Not all Judah and Benjamin remained in the land through their course of history though, when Babylon down to Rome and the Ottoman Empire controlled that area. One could consider this a form of being scattered too. Was the land of the United States promised to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob? If yes, where? What is the difference in meaning between AOF 10 saying, "We believe in the restoration of the Twelve Tribes" as opposed to "the restoration of the Ten Tribes"?

Could someone explain this article of faith: “We believe in the literal gathering of Israel and in the restoration of the Ten Tribes; that Zion (the New Jerusalem) will be built upon the American continent; that Christ will reign personally upon the earth; and, that the earth will be renewed and receive its paradisiacal glory”. Which two tribes are excluded from this restoration belief? Where is the restoration to? Doctrine and Covenants 57:1-3 says “Hearken, O ye elders of my church, saith the Lord your God, who have assembled yourselves together according to my commandments, in this land, which is the land of Missouri, which is the land which I have appointed and consecrated for the gathering of the saints. Wherefore, this is the land of promise, and the place for the city of Zion”. Is Missouri the appointed place for the gathering of all Latter-day Saints even if they are not literal descendants of Jacob? This teaching is attributed to Brigham Young: “By and by the Jews will be gathered to the land of their fathers, and the ten tribes, who wandered into the north, will be gathered home, and the blood of Ephraim, the second son of Joseph, who was sold into Egypt, which is to be found in every kingdom and nation under heaven, will be gathered from among the Gentiles, and the Gentiles who will receive and adhere to the principles of the Gospel will be adopted and initiated into the family of Father Abraham, and Jesus will reign over his own and Satan will reign over his own. This will be the result” (Journal of Discourses, General Instructions to Missionaries Going Abroad). Where is "home" for the ten tribes?

What do you mean?

Godhood is the status of someone who becomes a God (exaltation). I see no difference between Godhood and godhood.

While I believe Christ will give us authority to rule, that doesn’t mean we need to become Gods when we are sitting on thrones. The twenty four elders have crowns of gold upon their heads but Godhood is not applicable there either. The co-heirs you mention are the sons of God (Romans 8:14-17). God is on His throne. Other kings and priests do not sit on His throne.

Yes. They were united in marriage by God. But in the resurrection I don’t believe we’ll marry or be given in marriage. I believe Genesis 1:28 is only for our time on our earth.

I think exaltation means Godhood.

We know that one day Christ will return to earth physically to rule over the nations. He does not set aside his resurrected form.

@calm Do you believe this applies to Heavenly Father too?

Does that require us to become Gods first? I'm not sure what the status of nations will be after all the tribulation and destruction during the events surrounding the return of Christ and the final battle with the beast, false prophet, and their armies. Christ would ultimately rule when all would be subjected to him. This rule was not his in his human form.

I don’t know all that it entails but 1 Corinthians 6:1-3 gives us a little picture. In some ways, it will be the ultimate fulfillment of Genesis 1:26-28. We see more in Revelation 2:26-27.