KevinG Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 The church (and faithful membership) is not condemning gays to hell. The church is not kicking gays out. The church is drawing a line against those who enter into an arrangement in contradiction to current doctrine and practice, or who teach that it is OK to do so. That is why the new policy clarification deals specifically with those who enter into same sex marriage, not all gays.
Mystery Meat Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 (edited) So the other thread got closed so I'll put it here since I also posted the Ezekiel Scripture here as well. So now we're living the Levitical Law? No, and that is not what he said either. You are arguing in bad faith. Murder was also a violation of the Law of Moses as was stealing, lying, and adultery. Should we also abandon those sacred commandments because we no longer live the law of Moses? Of course not. Some commandments and laws transcend specific dispensations. The best way we can identify which ones do is through listening to modern prophets. Another way is to look to the scriptures. There is evidence both prior to the enactment of the Law of Moses and after that homosexuality was wrong. Why would we expect our dispensation to be an exception? Furthermore, the early Apostles were often times given new instruction that contradicted the old Mosaic Law. For example, the gospel was too be taught to the Gentiles and a dietary code that contradicted the old one was revealed. If something as trivial as eating certain animals was fit for further light and knowledge, you would think something as important as homosexual sex would be updated to make it acceptable in the eyes of the Lord. But, as it is, the Lord did not make any such change. Rather, just like throughout our history of God's dealings with the children of men murder, lying, adultery and fornication have been consistently labeled as sins, so too has homosexuality consistently, and not just under the law of Moses, been tagged as a sin by God's chosen anointed. Edited November 16, 2015 by Mystery Meat 1
Buckeye Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 How much fallibility are church leaders allowed to have? 7 x 70
JLHPROF Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 How much fallibility are church leaders allowed to have? However much God permits.
Gray Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 (edited) No, and that is not what he said either. You are arguing in bad faith. Murder was also a violation of the Law of Moses as was stealing, lying, and adultery. Should we also abandon those sacred commandments because we no longer live the law of Moses? Of course not. Some commandments and laws transcend specific dispensations. The best way we can identify which ones do is through listening to modern prophets. Another way is to look to the scriptures. There is evidence both prior to the enactment of the Law of Moses and after that homosexuality was wrong. Why would we expect our dispensation to be an exception? Furthermore, the early Apostles were often times given new instruction that contradicted the old Mosaic Law. For example, the gospel was too be taught to the Gentiles and a dietary code that contradicted the old one was revealed. If something as trivial as eating certain animals was fit for further light and knowledge, you would think something as important as homosexual sex would be updated to make it acceptable in the eyes of the Lord. But, as it is, the Lord did not make any such change. Rather, just like throughout our history of God's dealings with the children of men murder, lying, adultery and fornication have been consistently labeled as sins, so too has homosexuality consistently, and not just under the law of Moses, been tagged as a sin by God's chosen anointed. Taken in historical context, we have nothing in ancient scripture that really applies to gay marriage. Edited November 16, 2015 by Gray
JLHPROF Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 Taken in historical context, we have nothing in ancient scripture that really applies to gay marriage. Because there was no such thing in ancient times as "gay marriage". Homosexuality was given many other names instead.
Ares Posted November 16, 2015 Posted November 16, 2015 I don't want this thread to again start discussing SSM and the policy ... ...and so it will now be closed.
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