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I am sincerely seeking to understand something.  Some of Isaiahs words in Nephi appear as they are i King James. We are told Joseph did not use the Bible or any documents in the translation, just revelation from I think mainly the seer stone. Matthew in 3rd Nephi has some versus exactly the same as in King James, but the Mathew versus in 3rd Nephi areway different than in the Joseph Smith ranslation of the Bible. If the Book Of Mormon and Joseph Smith translation areby revelation and the correct ones, than why is the 3rd Nephi one more in harmony with the King James and compleetly not with the Joseph Smith translation of the Bible?

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I am sincerely seeking to understand something. Some of Isaiahs words in Nephi appear as they are i King James. We are told Joseph did not use the Bible or any documents in the translation, just revelation from I think mainly the seer stone. Matthew in 3rd Nephi has some versus exactly the same as in King James, but the Mathew versus in 3rd Nephi areway different than in the Joseph Smith ranslation of the Bible. If the Book Of Mormon and Joseph Smith translation areby revelation and the correct ones, than why is the 3rd Nephi one more in harmony with the King James and compleetly not with the Joseph Smith translation of the Bible?

Fairmormon.org usually has some good answers. Have you gone to their website?
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I am sincerely seeking to understand something.  Some of Isaiahs words in Nephi appear as they are i King James. We are told Joseph did not use the Bible or any documents in the translation, just revelation from I think mainly the seer stone. Matthew in 3rd Nephi has some versus exactly the same as in King James, but the Mathew versus in 3rd Nephi areway different than in the Joseph Smith ranslation of the Bible. If the Book Of Mormon and Joseph Smith translation areby revelation and the correct ones, than why is the 3rd Nephi one more in harmony with the King James and compleetly not with the Joseph Smith translation of the Bible?

 

Same inspiration different wording.

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