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Features Of A Northern Text


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Posted

So that I don't continue derailing another thread, I thought I would start a new one. There, Cobalt-70 made the following comments:

Here is a list of eight arguments to serve as a counterpoint:

1: The Book of Mormon is dismissive of kings in general, but more particularly of David and Solomon. The Book of Mormon also favors the early kingship code, and doesn't have any of the later more favorable material from Chronicles. The view towards kingship in the Book of Mormon clearly seems northern.

2: When dealing with the David and Goliath story, the Book of Mormon uses the shorter (northern) version of Samuel.

3: In following E as opposed to J, the Book of Mormon seems to have a definable theology of the presence, and tends to show God working through intermediaries (like angels). Where we see discussion of the immediate and physical presence of God, we generally seem to be speaking of the incarnation.

4: While the Book of Mormon doesn't have the Northern suggestion (Hosea) of God returning Israel to Egypt, it does have the suggestion that Israel/Judah had become Egypt (this is the often discussed idea that First Nephi is a long allusion to the Exodus narrative) from which Lehi must depart into the wilderness towards a promised land.

5: Let's not forget the most obvious issue - the tribes of Manasseh and Ephraim (i.e. the two tribes of Joseph) are both northern tribes. The only major figure and line of ancestry which is from a southern tribe is the Zarahemla/Mulek line. When the two groups meet, the smaller Lehite group becomes the dominant political force (there is no return to a Davidic king despite Zarahemla's claim to being a direct descendant of David).

6: It is true that the Book of Mormon does not use the name Horeb instead of Sinai. And it is also true that it speaks of Sinai in connection with the decalogue. But the decalogue we find in the Book of Mormon (from Abinadi) doesn't really relate well to the J source in Exodus 34 - rather, it comes from the E source in Exodus 20 (the so called ethical decalogue as opposed to the ritual decalogue).

7: The Book of Mormon adopts E's style of discussing man's relationship with God. The proper approach in both is to recognize that God tests men, and that man is to fear God.

8: The elevation of Moses in the Book of Mormon follows more closely the E source. It uses Deuteronomy a fair amount to do this, but, the portion of Deuteronomy that gets used is identified as part of proto-Deuteronomy (and not the parts added to or redacted by the Deteronomist).

Perhaps we can discuss the relative value of these two sets of positions?

Ben M.

You should work this up into a short note for Interpreter.

Posted

There is also Steve St. Clair, "The Stick of Joseph: The Book of Mormon and the Literary Tradition of Northern Israel", which used to be online. I've saved a copy at home, but don't have the footnotes.

Kevin Christensen

Pittsburgh, PA

Posted

I'm not sure how this explains away Cobalt-50's points, namely that the Book of Mormon contains clear J material and that Nephi himself says that the Brass Plates contained "the five books of Moses." It seems that to argue that the Brass Plates excluded material from either kingdom would require ignoring large parts of the BoM text or selectively explaining away certain things as translation issues or Joseph Smith-isms.

That said, if one is accepting the documentary hypothesis and applying it to the Book of Mormon, that creates several additional problems, not the least of which is also mentioned by Cobalt-50: there shouldn't BE any "five books of Moses" when Nephi leaves Jerusalem c. 600 B.C., much less "five books" that have already been redacted together and previously inscribed on a permanent metal record.

Posted

The DH comes in several flavors, which means Kevin Barney can say things like this:

In the case of the Book of Mormon, I see no necessary conflict between

that book's essential historicity and the Documentary Hypothesis.

The dating of the sources raises a potential conflict, if one accepts a late date

for P65 or the growing trend, described by Dozeman, of a late date for J.66

But in the model of the theory I accept, the sources are all pre-Exilic,67 and,

as I have indicated, I tend somewhat towards a certain agnosticism on the

dating of the sources anyway.68

According to 1 Nephi 5:11, the brass plates contained the "five books of

Moses." The reader will recall that Sjodahl rejected the Documentary Hypothesis

outright based on that passage alone. But if the basic sources were

all pre-Exilic, we do not know in what form those sources existed prior to

the redaction of R. It may well be that there were "five books" of Moses,

only in a somewhat different configuration than the five books we know

today.69 Although I admit this as a possibility, personally I think it is simpler

to assume that the text referred to "books of Moses," taking the number

"five" as a translator's gloss. 1 Nephi 19:23 refers to the "books of

Moses" on the brass plates without the number "five," which supports this

possibility. In fact, the first edition (1830) has "the Book of Moses," which

suggests that even the plural "books" in 1 Nephi 5:11 may be a gloss based

on the Prophet Joseph's assumptions and expectations.70 1 Nephi 22:20 and

Helaman 8:13 refer simply and ambiguously to the "words" of Moses.

See

https://dialoguejournal.com/wp-content/uploads/sbi/articles/Dialogue_V33N01_79.pdf

And of course, if Nephi is a scribe trained in the Northern Tradition, he'd approach any Brass Plates sources mostly from that perspective. But not necessarily exclusively.

FWIW

Kevin Christensen

Pittsburgh, PA

Posted

I have seen the argument--if you can call it that--that "five" may be considered a "translator's gloss" and not part of the actual ancient text. But once one begins doing that, it seems to undermine any discussion regarding the Book of Mormon as an ancient text, since we can simply dismiss anything in the text that contradicts our argument as a "translator's gloss."

Posted

I have seen the argument--if you can call it that--that "five" may be considered a "translator's gloss" and not part of the actual ancient text. But once one begins doing that, it seems to undermine any discussion regarding the Book of Mormon as an ancient text, since we can simply dismiss anything in the text that contradicts our argument as a "translator's gloss."

I hate ascribing things to a "translator's gloss" unless the evidence points strongly in that direction, as I agree that they can be used as a cop-out.

Posted

Would it be common in that time period to have all these writings together in one source, hard coded in Brass?

This seems to be one of the potential problems here. The assumption has usually been -- in my experience, at least -- that the Brass Plates were considerably older than Nephi himself. Now, if they were a more recent production, that might help things along. Clearly they were still being added to, since they contained parts of Jeremiah, but one has to wonder whether Jewish scribes would be inclined to ADD "books of Moses" that weren't already on them.

Also, as others have pointed out, there are several different brands of the Documentary Hypothesis, with different scholars going back and forth over the dates of some sources, especially P and apparently now J. The question for Mormons who try to fit the Documentary Hypothesis into the Book of Mormon, is your belief regarding the dates of the sources BASED on you wanting to fit them into the Book of Mormon? Because that seems like shaky methodology.

Posted

[The five books of Moses] almost certainly existed as a collection (even if they were different from what we have today) quite some time before the end of the Persian period.

Yet David Carr writes in his latest book, "Though there were potential early cores behind separate Pentateuchal traditions, such as the ancestral or Exodus-Moses traditions, most specialists in the study of the Pentateuch now think that the first proto-Pentateuchal narrative, one extending from creation to Moses, dated to the exile at the earliest" (David M. Carr, The Formation of the Hebrew Bible: A New Reconstruction [New York: Oxford University Press, 2011], 359).

Posted

I am curious, Nevo, have you read Carr?

He argues that there is a textual tradition that starts in the 10th and 9th centuries in part because of the formation of the two separate states - the northern kingdoms and Judah. And, once more, I think that this is simply the wrong argument. We can all present opinions and speculation (even that from specialists and experts). But, this is just trying to argue about relevance isn't it? If we can examine the text of the Book of Mormon and look at the way it uses sources, this tells us something, it informs us, in ways that endless debates over speculation of the nature of the text in 600 BC cannot. And it tells us things independent of whether or not it is in some way a historical record. It is examining the text of the Book of Mormon that lets us ask intelligent questions about it.

No one is going to argue that there weren't some core "texts" behind each of the five books of Moses. We don't know when these came into existence (perhaps they started as oral traditions - that seems to be Carr's point of view). At some point, these five different traditions became texts, and at some point they are associated with each other, and at many points, they are redacted (both in the oral stage and as texts). To suggest that the latest possible date (given as evidence of the earliest known copy of such a collection) is the date at which these texts first became a collection is unreasonable by any standard (Joseph's position). We have a composite history (the proto-pentateuchal narrative) argued as a prelude to the work of DH. But then we also have a Deuteronomy and a proto-Deuteronomy. To suggest that there was a tradition of five distinct works by Moses prior to the exile is not an extreme view. And I think its important to recognize with reference to Carr's comments that you quote, that speaking of a pentateuch and even a proto-pentateuch isn't the same as speaking of the proto-pentateuchal narrative.

Ben M.

Posted

Would it be common in that time period to have all these writings together in one source, hard coded in Brass?

So I assume there are no other brass plates from that time period that had all those writings together in one source. Would it be expected that the existence of these brass plates and the robbery of them would be something noted anywhere in a historical record?

Posted (edited)

So . . . the Southern Kingdom (led by Rehoboam) have the Ark in their Temple, including the manna in the gold pot and the two stone tablets of the Law.

Just what does the Northern Kingdom (led by Jeroboam) have? How does Jeroboam legitimize his right to rule without the Ark sitting down at Shiloh in the Tabernacle, it having been removed by David to Jerusalem?

Maybe he commissions brass/bronze plates and a sword . . . which plates and sword later come to Lehi, having been secreted out and saved by leading Josephite families around Jerusalem after the fall of Samaria.

A speculation, to be sure, but why not?

Edited by USU78
Posted (edited)

1 So all Israel were reckoned by genealogies; and, behold, they were written in the book of the kings of Israel and Judah, who were carried away to Babylon for their transgression.

2 Now the first inhabitants that dwelt in their possessions in their cities were, the Israelites, the priests, Levites, and the Nethinims.

3 And in Jerusalem dwelt of the children of Judah, and of the children of Benjamin, and of the children of Ephraim, and Manasseh;

Would the above indicate why the Mulekites (Mulek son of King Zed.) had no records with them, versus Lehi's Plates of Brass from Laban?

It appears each tribe kept a record of their genealogies - one of which was on the Plates of Brass - thus we read:

And Laban also was a descendant of Joseph, wherefore he and his fathers had kept the records.

Thus potentially there could have been 12 records of the Five Books of Moses?

Edited by ANACO
  • 4 weeks later...
Posted (edited)

While a possible derail, I also wanted to mention something in a similar vein. I also think it quite telling in the way the Book of Mormon uses Isaiah sources. Even though there are several opportunities for it to arise the Book of Mormon never quotes from or references the "strict monotheistic" passages of Isaiah like chapters 41, 43, 46, and others like them.

Of course, that is where the style differs so drastically from the earlier chapters and reads more like courtroom drama than religious poetry, in a lot of it. Although it does quote from chapters that have been named by scholars over the years alternatively "Deutero-Isaiah" and "Trito-Isaiah," and so forth, in every case where writers and those speaking have ample opportunity to make use of more strictly monotheistic passages to support what people commonly understand to be their positions, they don't make use of any of them at all. I have always found that interesting.

Edited by MormonMason
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