changed Posted September 14, 2011 Posted September 14, 2011 (edited) 38 And unto every kingdom is given a law; and unto every law there are certain bounds also and conditions.(Doctrine and Covenants | Section 88:38)So I went to the temple last night, and have a question... I'm struggling with how specific I can make this question... if it is on lds.org, or in the scriptures, then it's free game right? Hopefully someone can see the question, and understand why I am asking it?Question:Can anyone tell me the difference between the "Law of the Lord" and "The Law of God"?Both of these terms show up on LDS.org, so I am assuming that it is ok to ask/discuss this temple-related question.I assume that "Lord" is in reference to Jesus Christ? although the term Lord could also be used in reference to someone else ... interesting that the temple is called "The house of the Lord" when it seems to be more of a House of God... I always thought the regular church buildings seemed more like the House (church) of Jesus Christ, where the temple seemed more like a house of God - but they call it the House of the Lord... sorry, perhaps I am just being nit-picky - but there seemed to be a difference between these two laws, and who each law was given to.Feel free to delete this if you think it is inappropriate. Edited September 14, 2011 by changed
CV75 Posted September 14, 2011 Posted September 14, 2011 (edited) Can anyone tell me the difference between the "Law of the Lord" and "The Law of God"?The specific term “Law of the Lord/LORD/Lord God of Israel/LORD thy God” as it shows up in Luke 2:22-24, 39; 1 Chr 16:40; 2 Chr 31:3-4; 34:14-15; and 2 Kings 10:31 seems to pertain to the Law of Moses. A word search on lds.org brings up many other references.The specific term “Law of God” shows up on an lds.org word search as a reference to the Gospel of Jesus Christ in the New Testament (Romans 7 and 8 ) and modern revelation. In D&C (42, 85), the term seems to be associated with revelations obtained for administrating in spiritual matters regarding Church members, and D&C 132:28 seems to showits connection with the new and everlasting covenant of marriage. Mosiah 2:23 seems to show its reference to the Ten Commandments and the associated “higher laws” of the Gospel (which are also articulated in the Old Testament). The Old Testament references seem to also use it, but in in reference to the law and books of Moses.So in most general terms, I would say the “Law of the Lord” references the law and books of Moses, and the “Law of God” as the teachings, revelations and administration of Christ's will in the New Testament and Restored Gospel.. Edited September 14, 2011 by CV75 1
changed Posted September 14, 2011 Author Posted September 14, 2011 Thanks CV - yea, there are different levels of laws, lower laws of Moses (try not to kill one another) up to the higher laws of Jesus (love your enemies) but it is not the "Law of Moses" and the "Law of Jesus" I think it is one step up - the "Law of Jesus" and the "Law of God" I was thinking that the Law of the Lord (Jesus being the "Lord of Hosts") was more of Jesus teachings in the NT, and that the Law of God was somehow even higher than that? I know Jesus and God pretty much stand for all the same things, except perhaps Jesus fulfills more of a mercy type role (atonement) vs. God fulfills more of a judgment type of role... so I was also thinking one group within the temple was being asked to take on the role of Jesus (merciful, trying to pay the price to get others off the hook type deal) vs. one group being asked to take on more of a judgment - lay down the law type of a role?
CV75 Posted September 14, 2011 Posted September 14, 2011 Thanks CV - yea, there are different levels of laws, lower laws of Moses (try not to kill one another) up to the higher laws of Jesus (love your enemies) but it is not the "Law of Moses" and the "Law of Jesus" I think it is one step up - the "Law of Jesus" and the "Law of God" I was thinking that the Law of the Lord (Jesus being the "Lord of Hosts") was more of Jesus teachings in the NT, and that the Law of God was somehow even higher than that? I know Jesus and God pretty much stand for all the same things, except perhaps Jesus fulfills more of a mercy type role (atonement) vs. God fulfills more of a judgment type of role... so I was also thinking one group within the temple was being asked to take on the role of Jesus (merciful, trying to pay the price to get others off the hook type deal) vs. one group being asked to take on more of a judgment - lay down the law type of a role?I can’t think of any instance where there is a higher law than the Gospel of Jesus Christ in its fullness, or that either law of mercy or of justice could operate as higher than the other. The highest laws of the post-resurrection kingdoms are lived by exalted children of God, which is the aim of the Gospel of Jesus Christ in this world.Both ancient and modern temple rites were designed to teach, model and extend true and full Redemption, and so they address the concepts of mercy and justice (i.e. atonement) and their related principles in all the specifics performed by the presidents, officiators and patrons. All are functioning as saviors, performing sacred service in the form of executing mercy (proxy work, teaching, showing, assisting, guiding) and judgment (witnessing and assessing that work is done correctly and subsequently granting access to the next phase when the work is done). Even an initiate is acting as a savior for himself and anyone his life touches for the better as a result of his temple preparation and participation.
changed Posted September 14, 2011 Author Posted September 14, 2011 I agree, can't really top "be ye therefore perfect" ... I do think the demands of Justice have higher priority than those of mercy. (What, do ye suppose that mercy can rob justice? I say unto you, Nay; not one whit. If so, God would cease to be God.Alma 42:25)... yes, both Heavenly Father and Jesus played the role of Savior (God made a sacrifice too) Thanks again for the replies!
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