Psalm 82 and John 10

Mike Richards · March 30, 2011

While reading this evening, I had a few questions come up that I hope someone can help me find the answers to. This first one should be easy, I think:

In John 10:34 Jesus says, " Is in not written in your law, 'I said, Ye are gods'?". I assume, and I think it's generally agreed that he is quoting Psalm 82. The question is: what did "the Law" consist of to Jews at this time. I guess I'm surprised by his reference to a Psalm as part of the Law. Did all scripture fit under the term Law for them?

Now, more on this passage and Psalm 82: While trying to investigate this passage, I found a few papers and discussions on Psalm 82. I'll happily admit that I haven't been super thorough in reading these discussions and papers (I've only spent about an hour), so if the answer to my question is, "Go read some more," then I'll do that (a little direction would be appreciated). If however, this portion of the topic hasn't been addressed elsewhere, I'd like to hear some thoughts on it.

Jesus is using Psalm 82:6 (or some missing scripture that says the same thing...) as a defense against the accusation that he has committed blasphemy. His argument appears to be something like, "If what you yourselves view as infallible scripture identifies those 'unto whom the word of God came' as gods themselves, why can't I be one?"

I've always previously read "unto whom the word of God came" as meaning "people who accept the scriptures" or just viewed the passage as some generic statement that "all people are gods". But, in light of what I've read on Psalm 82, it seems like those "unto whom the word of God came" is referring to the reprobate gods of other nations. But, if this is the case, Jesus' response doesn't seem to be as good of a defense. Was Jesus (knowingly) using this passage out of context? Was he so far removed from the setting in which this Psalm was composed that he didn't understand what it was? Do we misunderstand the Psalm? Was Jesus quoting something entirely different?

TAO · March 30, 2011

There has been alot of thought on this one, I notice. Technically, in Psalms it is referring to other Gods of other nations, like you said. Yet Jesus is using it as meaning all the Jews. I don't know exactly how they coincide, I've asked the same question before... perhaps Jesus meant the verse to be interpreted in an additional way or something... I do not know.

Sorry I cannot be of more help, but I just wanted to let you know you aren't the only person who noticed this ;-).

Oh, btw, I can create a similar thread in General Discussion for you if you would like... since you can't create topics there yet. Would you like me to?

Edited March 30, 2011 by TAO

Mike Richards · March 30, 2011

Oh, btw, I can create a similar thread in General Discussion for you if you would like... since you can't create topics there yet. Would you like me to?

If you are willing to do it, that would be great! Thanks!