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Polygamy in the N.T.


Guest Just Curious

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I think if one believes that the BOM is truly the restored gospel from Christ, then it's position is quite clear:

My only complaint about your post is that you didn't get all the way to verse 30 in Jacob 2. That verse is THE answer.

I find vs 30 interesting for a couple of reasons.

1. It is obvious that there must have been more than the original Lehi party in the Americas at that time. Remember Jacob is still alive here and a generation hasn't passed, and yet there seems to be plenty of people around.

2. I'm not so sure of the need to raise seed during Joseph's time, does anyone have any reference to that?? Not trying to put a cat amongst the pigeons, just genuinely curious.

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My only complaint about your post is that you didn't get all the way to verse 30 in Jacob 2. That verse is THE answer.
Ya I noticed Joey's little trick there too. That is a blatant attempt to pull the wool over our eyes.

The topic here was why the NT does not mention polygamy. My post was to show that the NT and BOM (covering much of the same time) were consistent with respect to the feelings about marriage being between one wife and one man.

However, if you believe that v. 30 in Jacob is somehow an "out" for polygamy, you have much tougher facts and reasons to deal with. For example:

1. Why was polygamy neccessary to raise seed?

2. Since "raising seed" was the only condition lds seem to think that allowed polygamy in v. 30, why did Smith marry so many women without having any children from them.

3. If, as your current version of the D&C's states, Smith received this revelation in 1831, why did it take the lds church some 20+ years to release it to it's membership?

4. How many other "revelations from God" needed to be surpressed for 20+ years in lds doctrine?

Just some of the more "obvious" questions that the lds church seems to avoid in dealing with this issue. Emotional answers prove to work quite well for "emotional" minds. But when inserting "reason" into the equation, the answers don't seem to fare as well.

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1. Why was polygamy neccessary to raise seed?

Why does God require baptism for salvation?

2. Since "raising seed" was the only condition lds seem to think that allowed polygamy in v. 30, why did Smith marry so many women without having any children from them.

I see nothing in Jacob 2:30 that precludes God from having other reasons.

3. If, as your current version of the D&C's states, Smith received this revelation in 1831, why did it take the lds church some 20+ years to release it to it's membership?

Why does the Bible not contain the things Peter, James, and John heard on the Mount of Transfiguration? Why does it also not contain the many things Jesus taught the disciples between his resurrection and ascension?

The early Christians knew what was taught in those cases; the esoteric rites which they spoke of even less than we do (but many writtings remain).

4. How many other "revelations from God" needed to be surpressed for 20+ years in lds doctrine?

See above.

Just some of the more "obvious" questions that the lds church seems to avoid in dealing with this issue. Emotional answers prove to work quite well for "emotional" minds. But when inserting "reason" into the equation, the answers don't seem to fare as well.

If you'd read your NT a little more, and studied some early Christian history, you would've been able to answer these questions on your own.

It is impossible to question the LDS Church without calling into question the Bible and early Christianity.

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