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The Restoration of the Priesthood Lineage


consiglieri

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Moses 6:7 contains what appears to be a one-sentence prophecy of Adam that has always been a bit of a puzzle to me, but thanks to nakhadlow, when reading it last night, it suddenly exploded with contextualized meaning.

Cain has just slain Abel, who really does seem to have been the chosen seed through whose line the patriarchal Priesthood was to descend from Adam, but upon his murder, that line was cut off. Cain may have thought he could appropriate the Priesthood to himself through this maneuver, but he gets cut off as a result.

Then God hears Adam's prayer and Eve conceives and gives birth to Seth, who becomes the replacement for Abel and provides a replacement lineage for the Priesthood.

It is in this context that Adam makes the following prophecy:

Moses 6:7 Now this same Priesthood, which was in the beginning, shall be in the end of the world also.

Better contextualized, I now understand Adam to be saying:

Moses 6:7 Now (that the Lord has provided me another son to restore the chosen lineage) this same Priesthood, which was in the beginning, shall be in the end of the world also.

The "now" that begins the sentence is not merely for emphasis, but actually means "now" as a point in time; it was not until Seth was born that Adam could say this, which I take to be an exclamation as joy as much as a prophecy.

Any thoughts?

All the Best!

--Consiglieri

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thanks for the callout :P

It has always been an enigmatic scripture to me. It's enigma only increased when I read the first draft manuscript version of it (OT1), which had no reference to Priesthood.

"Now this was in the beginning, which shall be in the end of the world. Now this prophecy Adam spake, as he was moved upon by the Holy Ghost..."

I had attempted a thread about this not too long ago.

I was all over the place in my thoughts in that thread, but now I think It's very possible the reference was to Priesthood originally, but it wasn't made explicit until the 1831 redaction into OT2. (In fact, the term priesthood wasn't used much at all in the revelations in 1830 - the concept was there, but not the word! 'authority' and 'order' were used more)

And if so, then I think your conclusion based on the ideas in my blog entry, makes fantastic sense!

Frankly, I'm quite willing to think there are several things Adam is referring to in the prophecy, and that 'Priesthood', as emphasized in 1831 (and the current text) is certainly one of them.

It is of note also that in the 1831 redaction, there is a section which mentions Adam being given keys - for some reason, that redaction wasn't kept in the current version!

Good insight!

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You obviously know your primary materials much better than I.

As I read Moses 6:7 as a prophecy of gladness over the birth of Seth and the renewal of a patriarchal line of Priesthood, I reflected on the other passage that seems similar to this, but refers to Gospel instead of Priesthood, which occurs seven verses earlier at Moses 5:59:

Moses 5:59--And thus all things were confirmed unto Adam, by an holy ordinance, and the Gospel preached, and a decree sent forth, that it should be in the world, until the end thereof; and thus it was. Amen.

In context, Moses 5:59 seems to be a promise/decree made to Adam by God that the Gospel would be in the world until the end thereof, which seems unlikely given that at the time it was made, Satan had absolute sway over Adam's children and Cain has already slain Abel.

But in the first few verses of Moses 6, Seth is born and Adam recognizes in his birth the fulfillment of the promise/decree made in 5:59, thus calling forth his prophecy/jubiliation in 6:7.

This highlights Seth's role not only as a "resurrected" Abel, but also as a child of promise like the Savior.

Looking at the structure of Moses 5:59, I note that the "it" that should be in the world until the end thereof is not completely specified; since it would refer most naturally back to the "decree," but is generally understood to refer further back in the sentence to "Gospel."

It would be interesting, though completely speculative, to wonder if this is another "it" that could have been rendered "the Priesthood" as was apparently done with Moses 6:7.

What do you think?

All the Best!

--Consiglieri

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Looking at the structure of Moses 5:59, I note that the "it" that should be in the world until the end thereof is not completely specified; since it would refer most naturally back to the "decree," but is generally understood to refer further back in the sentence to "Gospel."

It would be interesting, though completely speculative, to wonder if this is another "it" that could have been rendered "the Priesthood" as was apparently done with Moses 6:7.

However, neither "it"s (gospel,priesthood), have been in the world at all times.

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However, neither "it"s (gospel,priesthood), have been in the world at all times.

You are correct, sir!

But it is possible that this way of viewing the text may open the window to alternative ways of viewing what was meant by Adam when it was originally written.

Or maybe it actually has been in in the world at all times in some way different from the way we normally perceive.

Or perhaps "to the end of the world" constituted the first end of the world in the flood, during which time we have the ten links of unbroken patriarchs.

All the Best!

--Consiglieri

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But it is possible that this way of viewing the text may open the window to alternative ways of viewing what was meant by Adam when it was originally written.

I would agree. How could a primordial man not view all things differently than we do?

Or maybe it actually has been in in the world at all times in some way different from the way we normally perceive.

I think this one is key, which could hold implications to the cherished LDS views of apostasy and restoration.

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I think this one is key, which could hold implications to the cherished LDS views of apostasy and restoration.

Wouldn't it be odd if Joseph Smith, himself accused of making predictions that did not come to pass, produced a prophecy ostensibly from Adam which itself did not come to pass?

Friday afternoons my muse works overtime. :P

All the Best!

--Consiglieri

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Wouldn't it be odd if Joseph Smith, himself accused of making predictions that did not come to pass, produced a prophecy ostensibly from Adam which itself did not come to pass?

Friday afternoons my muse works overtime. :P

All the Best!

--Consiglieri

Moses 6:7 uses the word "shall".. 5:59 uses the word "should". Any significance?

Is one a decree and the other a ...prayer?

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