Sargon Posted July 31, 2007 Author Posted July 31, 2007 Great post Lightbearer! I wouldn't have thought of that BoM verse.Sargon
PacMan Posted July 31, 2007 Posted July 31, 2007 soren,Pacman has argued that because "glory" is a metaphysical thing, the physical image seen must have been the Father's body. Not necessarily. The glory, or brightness, radiance, etc. may have been seen. It is very possible that it was so bright that indeed his body was not seen. All the same, his body was present...separate from the Son.PacMan
Zakuska Posted July 31, 2007 Posted July 31, 2007 I know of no vision in which God the Father or God the Son are described as metaphysical essences that the viewer was not able to see. Not even in John's figurative vision.But any vision of God has to be figurative because John himself wirtes: "No man hath seen God at any time." (1 John 4:12)John also says, That Christ has seen God and his Shape.John 6: 4646 Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. John 5: 37 37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.Can not Christ reveal the Father to whom he chooses?
PacMan Posted July 31, 2007 Posted July 31, 2007 "No man hath seen God at any time."So, if Jesus=God, and God=never having been seen, I bet that was really awkward for His apostles testifying of His many works, having seen them with their eyes closed. PacMan
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