Joseph Antley Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 Did Joseph Smith understand the KJV names that coincided in the OT and NT? Did he understand that Esaias = Isaiah, Elias = Elijah, etc. What do you think?
Sethbag Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 I don't think he did. I think he treated them as separate people. It's one very small piece of the puzzle that depicts how manmade this church is.
consiglieri Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 How could Joseph Smith have understood that Esaias is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew Isaiah?He didn't even know that Jesus was born in Bethelehem, not Jerusalem!All the Best!--Consiglieri
The_Monk Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 See http://bycommonconsent.com/2006/03/who-was...elias-of-dc-110 from Kevin Barney of FAIR/FARMs.
katherine the great Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 See http://bycommonconsent.com/2006/03/who-was...elias-of-dc-110 from Kevin Barney of FAIR/FARMs.Thanks for that link. That is the first logical explanation I've ever heard.
maklelan Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 How could Joseph Smith have understood that Esaias is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew Isaiah?He didn't even know that Jesus was born in Bethelehem, not Jerusalem!All the Best!--ConsiglieriBut at the same time he extracted then undiscovered literary nuances from the Bible and masterfully sprinkled them throughout the Book of Mormon that he recited from his photographic memory, with just the right amount of variances that would later prove, in some instances, to be better restorations of the text than any English Bible. All this was done between trips to the public libraries where he would spend next to no time there so as not to alert his family to his absence, but have enough time to memorize names, places, theories and history that he would later inject into his from-the-hip "translation" of metal plates that he hypnotized almost a dozen people into seeing at the same time. All the while he made sure to represent himself as uneducated to everyone who knew him, including his wife. C'mon, it's not that hard to figure out.
Hammer Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 Did Joseph Smith understand the KJV names that coincided in the OT and NT? Did he understand that Esaias = Isaiah, Elias = Elijah, etc. What do you think?I think they are stations or positions or responsibilities.
Moksha Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 Apologetics are great. Usually, the easiest thing to do in such a case would be to just say he got it wrong, but via apologetics, we are able to come up with our own explanations to explain this discrepancy.
maklelan Posted October 14, 2006 Posted October 14, 2006 Apologetics are great. Usually, the easiest thing to do in such a case would be to just say he got it wrong, but via apologetics, we are able to come up with our own explanations to explain this discrepancy.Yeah, real honest scholarship always sticks with the first, most superficial conclusion. That one has to be right.
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