Robert F. Smith Posted August 28, 2019 Posted August 28, 2019 5 hours ago, cinepro said: Which human in history could speak (and/or read) both Reformed Egyptian and English? Nice question, if and only if we are discussing scholarly translation. The mechanics of "interpretation of languages" in 1 Cor 12:10, and 14:26-28, may differ. As John Calvin says Quote There was a difference between the knowledge of tongues, and the interpretation of them, for those who were endowed with the former were, in many cases, not acquainted with the language of the nation with which they had to deal. The interpreters rendered foreign tongues into the native language. These endowments they did not at that time acquire by labor or study, but were put in possession of them by a wonderful revelation of the Spirit. https://biblehub.com/commentaries/calvin/1_corinthians/12.htm . .... the interpreter was in the place of the prophet: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/calvin/1_corinthians/14.htm . It boils down to how the Holy Spirit works in such instances. How do you see it? Does God speak to man in terms of man's own language and understanding? How is the culture-gap and knowledge-gap bridged?
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