inquiringmind Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 (edited) Why is Jesus called "That Which" (and not "He Whom") in Moses 7:39?And athat which I have chosen hath pled before my face. Wherefore, he bsuffereth for their sins; inasmuch as they will repent in the day that my cChosen shall return unto me, and until that day they shall be in dtorment (Moses 7:39.)Isn't it bad grammar (and normally considered disrespectful) to refer to a person as a "that"? Edited February 18, 2012 by inquiringmind
zerinus Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 (edited) Why is Jesus called "That Which" (and not "He Whom") in Moses 7:39?And athat which I have chosen hath pled before my face. Wherefore, he bsuffereth for their sins; inasmuch as they will repent in the day that my cChosen shall return unto me, and until that day they shall be in dtorment (Moses 7:39.)Isn't it bad grammar (and normally considered disrespectful) to refer to a person as a "that"?"Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name" (Matthew 6:9).The use of the word "that" (instead of "who") may be a literal rendering of the original. In some languages "that" can be a legitimate substitute for "who". The expression "he that" (instead of "he who") occurs 734 times in the KJV. Edited February 18, 2012 by zerinus
mercyngrace Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 Why is Jesus called "That Which" (and not "He Whom") in Moses 7:39?And athat which I have chosen hath pled before my face. Wherefore, he bsuffereth for their sins; inasmuch as they will repent in the day that my cChosen shall return unto me, and until that day they shall be in dtorment (Moses 7:39.)Isn't it bad grammar (and normally considered disrespectful) to refer to a person as a "that"?What's really interesting to me about that verse is that the phrase "inasmuch as" means "because" or "in consideration of the fact that". I think some people confuse the phrase with "insofar as" which means "to the degree or extent that".Huge difference in those two phrases.... Huge.
Nevo Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 Why is Jesus called "That Which" (and not "He Whom") in Moses 7:39? . . . Isn't it bad grammar (and normally considered disrespectful) to refer to a person as a "that"?There are similar constructions in the 1830 Book of Mormon, but most of them have been corrected in subsequent editions.Here are just a few examples, taken from the first 25 pages or so of the 1830 edition (the current 1981 text is in parentheses):"I saw the servant of Laban which had the keys of the treasury" (1 Nephi 4:20)"I went forth unto my brethren, which were without the walls" (1 Nephi 4:27)"...Adam and Eve, which was our first parents" (1 Nephi 5:11)"even that Joseph which was the son of Jacob, which was sold into Egypt, and which was preserved by the hand of the Lord" (1 Nephi 5:14)"And he spake also, concerning a prophet, which should come before the Messiah" (1 Nephi 10:7)"And he said unto me, Behold, the virgin which thou seest, is the mother of God" (1 Nephi 11:18)Well, you get the idea.
zerinus Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 (edited) There are similar constructions in the 1830 Book of Mormon, but most of them have been corrected in subsequent editions.Here are just a few examples, taken from the first 25 pages or so of the 1830 edition (the current 1981 text is in parentheses):"I saw the servant of Laban which had the keys of the treasury" (1 Nephi 4:20)"I went forth unto my brethren, which were without the walls" (1 Nephi 4:27)"...Adam and Eve, which was our first parents" (1 Nephi 5:11)"even that Joseph which was the son of Jacob, which was sold into Egypt, and which was preserved by the hand of the Lord" (1 Nephi 5:14)"And he spake also, concerning a prophet, which should come before the Messiah" (1 Nephi 10:7)"And he said unto me, Behold, the virgin which thou seest, is the mother of God" (1 Nephi 11:18)Well, you get the idea.The use of the word "which" (as a substitute to "who") in similar constructs occurs in many places in the KJV, and it is not strictly "incorrect". They are archaic usages which have been modernized in later editions of the Book of Mormon. The Book of Mormon was written strictly in the KJV style; and the archaic forms it uses are not incorrect, but simply archaic and no longer in use. Edited February 18, 2012 by zerinus
Flyonthewall Posted February 18, 2012 Posted February 18, 2012 (edited) There is also Matthew 120 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a adream, saying, Joseph, thou son of bDavid, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the cHoly Ghost. Edited February 18, 2012 by Flyonthewall
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