inquiringmind Posted August 7, 2011 Posted August 7, 2011 On another thread on Polygamy, the practice of Levarite marriage was brought up.In commanding a man who's brother died childless to take his deceased brother's wife to himself, and raise up seed to his brother, does the Torah essentially command polygamy?
Sevenbak Posted August 7, 2011 Posted August 7, 2011 On another thread on Polygamy, the practice of Levarite marriage was brought up.In commanding a man who's brother died childless to take his deceased brother's wife to himself, and raise up seed to his brother, does the Torah essentially command polygamy?Methinks you might be obsessed with this topic.
inquiringmind Posted August 7, 2011 Author Posted August 7, 2011 (edited) Methinks you might be obsessed with this topic.It's been in the news a lot lately (with the Warren Jeffs Trial), but the question here concerns the Torah.Is it legitimate to say that it "commands" the practice of Polygamy (because of the brother's wife thing)? Edited August 7, 2011 by inquiringmind
Sevenbak Posted August 7, 2011 Posted August 7, 2011 (edited) In all fairness, I should add that if it's not commanded explicitly, although Nathan certainly said the Lord gave David his wives, then it's a least strongly condemned NOT doing it. This cracks me up!Deuteronomy 25:7 And if the man does not want to take his brother's wife, then let his brother's wife go up to the gate to the elders and say, My husband's brother refuses to raise up a name in Israel to his brother. He will not perform my levirate. 8 Then the elders of his city shall call him and speak to him. And if he stands and says, I do not desire to take her, 9 then his brother's wife shall come to him in the presence of his elders, and take off his shoe from his foot, and spit in his face, and shall answer and say, So shall it be done to that man who will not build up his brother's house. 10 And his name shall be called in Israel, The house of him who has his shoe taken off. Edited August 7, 2011 by Sevenbak
LeSellers Posted August 7, 2011 Posted August 7, 2011 In commanding a man who's brother died childless to take his deceased brother's wife to himself, and raise up seed to his brother, does the Torah essentially command polygamy?Having many times forcefully defended the position in the past that it does, my answer will not surprise anyone here: most definitely!The most telling support for this is there is no "escape clause" for the brother if he is married already. As Sevenbak points out, the man who refused to "do [the] levirate" for the childless widow was held in disdain by the townsfolk along with all his house (family), and his widowed sister-in-law would spit in his face. We, today, would find that humiliating, but in the ancient world it was immeasurably more so. The removal of his shoe (especially by a woman) was also a gross humiliation. Remember the people in Iraq who struck Sadam Hussein's statues and portraits with their shoes? The foot was (and remains still in the Middle East) disgusting. For a man to be barefoot was a shameful thing. Lehi
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