Rob Bowman Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 Zakuska,You wrote:Since Paul quoted a Pagan Poet... certianly he missed the Boat on so called "Sola Scriptura".I'm afraid you are the one who missed the boat. Sola scriptura in no way precludes scriptural authors from quoting non-scriptural sources.
Rob Bowman Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 Mola,Let me review. You had written:If sola scriptura means that we should look to the scriptures for our doctrine, I agree. If sola scritpura means "all the scripture in the world is contained in the bible and the bible only." then I reject that. That is unbiblical. Most of the time Sola Scriptura seems to mean that latter definition.I had pointed out that "sola scriptura simply means that we should derive our doctrine from the scriptures, just as you said. That's a pretty fair statement of what the doctrine of sola scriptura says. The issue of whether the Bible is the only scripture we have is a different question. It is the question of the extent of the canon." I then asked you, "Would you agree that between, say, AD 100 and AD 1820, the only scripture that the Christian church had was the Bible?" You agreed with me on this point.Now then, it seems that between AD 100 and 1820, you would have agreed with sola scriptura. That is, you would have agreed that we should derive our doctrine from scripture, and that the only scripture we had was the Bible. We could put it this way: You really agree in principle with sola scriptura, but maintain that the canon of scripture has been expanded for the past couple of centuries to include the Book of Mormon, D&C, and Pearl of Great Price. Would you agree?
Mola Ram Suda Ram Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 Mola,Let me review. You had written:I had pointed out that "sola scriptura simply means that we should derive our doctrine from the scriptures, just as you said. That's a pretty fair statement of what the doctrine of sola scriptura says. The issue of whether the Bible is the only scripture we have is a different question. It is the question of the extent of the canon." I then asked you, "Would you agree that between, say, AD 100 and AD 1820, the only scripture that the Christian church had was the Bible?" You agreed with me on this point.Now then, it seems that between AD 100 and 1820, you would have agreed with sola scriptura. That is, you would have agreed that we should derive our doctrine from scripture, and that the only scripture we had was the Bible. We could put it this way: You really agree in principle with sola scriptura, but maintain that the canon of scripture has been expanded for the past couple of centuries to include the Book of Mormon, D&C, and Pearl of Great Price. Would you agree?Yeah. I guess I just misunderstood earlier. Thanks for the clarification.
Flyonthewall Posted February 5, 2010 Posted February 5, 2010 Matthew 4: 4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. All through the OT, God had something to say to His children. Jesus had a lot to say during His mortal ministry and even after His resurrection.Unless God states that He will never speak to His Children again, that His mouth is stopped up, then it is certain men that are attempting to restrict God's words to what is in the Bible.The Scribes and Pharisees had their scriptures, and refused more words from God because they could not accept the messenger. This is a pattern in the OT, NT and even in modern days.
Zakuska Posted February 5, 2010 Author Posted February 5, 2010 Matthew 4: 4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. All through the OT, God had something to say to His children. Jesus had a lot to say during His mortal ministry and even after His resurrection.Unless God states that He will never speak to His Children again, that His mouth is stopped up, then it is certain men that are attempting to restrict God's words to what is in the Bible.The Scribes and Pharisees had their scriptures, and refused more words from God because they could not accept the messenger. This is a pattern in the OT, NT and even in modern days.Not to mention the fact that its living breathing PEOPLE who have authority and not books.Matthew 728 And it came to pass, when Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine: 29 For he taught them as one having authority, and not as the scribes.
Geaux LSU Posted February 6, 2010 Posted February 6, 2010 The Evangelicals Ive talked to beleive it means that all they need is the Bible period.Same here.
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