foster Posted September 4, 2013 Posted September 4, 2013 The other day, I presented an "idea" which at least one person labeled as "deceptive". Here is the context: Me: We also know that plural marriage is ordained of God. And "a man and a woman" does not prohibit plural marriage as a man is married to a woman and the marriage is only recognized as between a particular man and a particular woman. Juliann: OK, they were trying to deceive everyone who speaks English. Another example:Consider, Joseph Smith denying "authorship" of a letter about Happiness to Nancy Rigdon. I believe Joseph Smith may not have penned the letter, nor dictated the letter at the moment of its writing; though, I believe that Joseph Smith may have concurred with the content and principles of the letter and authorized its delivery to Nancy Rigdon. Questions to ponder: Is it deceptive to support a marriage definition as "marriage between A man and A woman", but also state that such a definition permits plural marriage on the basis that each subsequent marriage is between "A man and A woman"; one spouse already married is marrying another person, rather than both spouses marrying the same person? Is it deceptive then for Joseph Smith to deny "authorship" of the letter, given that the words of are attributed to him by the Church, though not necessarily in the context of the letter to Nancy Rigdon? Is it deceptive to answer to the question that is asked, rather than the question that must be "read between the lines"?
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