Questions From A Critic

[cdowis]

A youtube critic has posted several comments, and I invited him here on our forum to give an extended response.

well, that certainly explains joseph smith quoting people from the 17th century (parentheses like these were clarifications, not actually in the greek and hebrew manuscripts) when he translated it from 600BC language into 19th century english.

to clarify here's what joseph smith said he did: read something written in 600BC, translated it into 17th century english (which was copied nearly exactly like the KJV for some reason), and he did all of this in the 19th century... right?

Well, it was written in the "scripture language" of the KJV Bible, with thee, and thou, and the verb forms (goeth, listeth), generally speaking it is in modern English. It avoids obsolete words such as "ken"(know), shew, etc.

there are thousands of reasons why the book of mormon falls to pieces when it comes to evidence but just one of those is that it quotes the king james bible (quotes that are not in the greek manuscripts) when the book of mormon was supposed to have been translated from plates that were written 2300 years before the king james bible was written... how do you reconcile this logical hole?

This has been discussed several times, but it would be better if you were to give us specific examples and give us the Bible citation and the comparison with the BOM verses. We can then respond accordingly.

Edited July 25, 2011 by cdowis

[Mola Ram Suda Ram]

Hmmm, I guess the critic did not care to come here. Bummer.