O-Brother Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 Is the word "Jews" in the Book Of Mormon a literal translation from ancient records?
LeSellers Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 Is the word "Jews" in the Book Of Mormon a literal translation from ancient records?I believe it is. At least most of the time. Nephi made it clear that he knew the difference between "Jew" as a political name and "Jew" as a tribal name. Both are correct in the appropriate contexts. Others of the Book of Mormon prophets made similar distinctions. There may have been place where Joseph was unable to find an English word to convey the precise concept of a Nephite word and had to settle for "Jew", but even there, I believe there would have been no significant loss in understanding. One wonders why this is such an interesting (to you) question. Lehi
notHagoth7 Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 Is the word "Jews" in the Book Of Mormon a literal translation from ancient records?In many places, I think it's in reference to nationality (of the kingdom of Judah). Not to tribal identity (of just the tribe of Judah).
jwhitlock Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 I'm sorry, I just can't resist.Is the Boo of Mormon something we only read on Halloween?
O-Brother Posted November 25, 2009 Author Posted November 25, 2009 Boo!I accidentally hit enter too fast and chopped off the letter "K"
O-Brother Posted November 25, 2009 Author Posted November 25, 2009 Yes, for the people of Judah.My question is about the word "Jew" or "Jews" Did Joseph simply use the English equivalent from the language he was translating from? I was just wondering whether he may have had the option to call those people Judeans instead of Jews. The word Jew didn't come up until ~1775. The 1611 edition of the KJ Bible does not contain the word "Jew" so I was just curious. No big deal.
volgadon Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 My question is about the word "Jew" or "Jews" Did Joseph simply use the English equivalent from the language he was translating from? I was just wondering whether he may have had the option to call those people Judeans instead of Jews. The word Jew didn't come up until ~1775. The 1611 edition of the KJ Bible does not contain the word "Jew" so I was just curious. No big deal.I don't know where you heard that, as it simply is not true. Here is Matthew 2:2 from the 1611 edition. Note the phrase king of the Jewes.My linkAlso, do read the Merchant of Venice.
O-Brother Posted November 25, 2009 Author Posted November 25, 2009 I don't know where you heard that, as it simply is not true. Here is Matthew 2:2 from the 1611 edition. Note the phrase king of the Jewes.My linkAlso, do read the Merchant of Venice.Sorry. I am referring to the Rheims (Douai) New Testament from 1582. Do you have a link to that?
volgadon Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 Sorry. I am referring to the Rheims (Douai) New Testament from 1582. Do you have a link to that?It appears in that one too. http://gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/bpt6k53352s.pleinepage.f33.pagination
O-Brother Posted November 25, 2009 Author Posted November 25, 2009 It appears in that one too. http://gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/bpt6k53352s.pleinepage.f33.paginationExcellent!! I don't see the word Jew but the word Iuda. Specifically, does the word "Jew" or Jewes" appear on that version?
volgadon Posted November 25, 2009 Posted November 25, 2009 Behold there came Sages from the eaft to Hierufalem, faying vvhere is he that is born King of the Ievves?
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