j.mason

Statements like this are very disrespectful and do not help your case.

When I was a missionary, out only a few weeks, I went to a zone conf where my mission pres. used Sec. 3 as text for his talk. I remember him quoting Sec. 3: Later I read Sec. 3 on my own, and the words, even to my teenage mind — the words just seemed to me marvelous. It was not only that these words were marvelous and beautiful, they were also describing an attribute of God, something no writer outside of Bible had ever done before. Later (2005) I recall reading Bushman’s RSR, and regarding Sec. 3, Bushman says, “Where did JS get the words?” Then a couple of years ago someone on this this forum (I think it was Champatsch) said that JS was not wording the revelations in the D & C —— and it just seemed to make sense to me. Can this be said of all the revelations? Can it even be said of Sec. 3? I don’t know. I don’t have any background in linguistics. But I definitely lean to the view that JS was not wording the revelations in the D & C, and I definitely believe he was not wording the BOM translation — he was, as witnesses to the translation said, dictating it (I assume from an existing translation).

I don't think JS was wording the revelations in the D & C, anymore than he was wording the text of the BOM. Witnesses all said that he "dictated" the revelations.

A good definition of fascism. I also like what Sinclair Lewis said (provenance of quote is not certain, but it is apropos nevertheless): “When Fascism comes to America, it will be wrapped in the flag and carrying a cross."