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I first wrote a great deal more but I think it can be distilled down to a simpler situation.
Exalted beings (eventually) are omnipotent. The have full control over existence inasmuch as control is possible . That would include their own physical and spirit body. If such a being wants to change his hair, eye, skin color -- he or she can. If such a being wants to retain physical markings consistent with mortal wounds -- he or she can. If such a being wants to be a foot taller or have four fingers -- he or she can. Celestial and Eternal Society is the pinnacle of harmony, peace, felicity, and efficacy. Our species has chosen to be basically gender binary We know that numerous sex/gender models exist and are present in different species Our spirit bodies were created by our Heavenly Parents A part of us is eternal and uncreate (I call that intelligent matter) and predates our spirit bodies We do not know if gender existed for us before our spirit body (as the D&C suggests, eternal does not necessarily mean into the infinite past or future) These are the basic facts of LDS theology. While I have several non-majority (yet still consistent with orthodoxy) opinions, I think these are mostly non-controversial as being consistent with our theology.
So, how would you answer these questions?
If an Exalted Being wants to change the physiological gender of their resurrected body, is that possible? Why has Eternal and Celestial Society chosen a gender binary mechanism? If gender existed before our spirit body, what does "gender" mean for a something that has no body? If gender did not exist before our spirit body, what was the mechanism whereby our Heavenly Parents chose a gender? Is that an immutable choice?
A note: These questions are not designed to be subversive in any way even though it might come across that way. I am theologically orthodox and orthopraxic. I fully support and sustain the Brethren, Elder Oaks, and the rest. I have my own partial answers to these questions, but other commentary may add insight that had not occurred to me.
Surprised to see the Trib advocate this but here we are.
My own take on the issue: the gov't of UT and State Supreme Court won't legalize polygamy at all.
It won't really matter though, some US state (MN?) will legalize it after Canada does (following Kenya, other African countries, Denmark which already have), and based on freedom of religion (not the freedom of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter day Saints, no; but the freedom of religious practice of other groups.
Wondering though when we might hear an announcement about this in General Conference, 5, 10 20 years?
Kenya legalized polygamy in 2014. Any readers here serve mission there and have to tell investigators they'd need to stop the practice before being able to be baptized? I understand in Latin America a lot of married people split up but forgo the legal part of making the divorce official and that has to be done before they can be baptized.
Germany is trying to indirectly legalize polygamy for one of their migrant culture's beliefs.
My wife and I support our ancestors who practiced polygamy, to say nothing of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob practicing polygamy.
Curious as to your thoughts:
Will other African countries and European countries following suit? Will / Should people in Congress - Ilhan, Tlaib, Romney, Bishop, etc. allow migrants here to practice what their faith encourages? Declining populations (Japan, Europe) really have two options: welcome in higher fertility populations from other countries or legalize polygamy.
Pushed by politicians, polygamy enjoys a heyday among Christians in ...
Germany: Citizenship for Polygamous Migrants?
The timeline and reasons of how the idea of polygamy evolved into practice is perplexing. It is causing me doubt how scriptures are to be obeyed, and how to trust the revelatory process. Let's look at the pattern Joseph Smith followed:
March 1830 - Joseph Smith publishes the Book of Mormon (supposedly scripture) which contains commandments from God. The only discussion of polygamy is found in Jacob 2, which clearly condemns the practice. However, there is a provision given for exceptions: only to 'raise up seed' if God commands it.
The Gospel Topics Essay on Plural Marriage in Kirtland and Nauvoo states that "After receiving a revelation commanding him to practice plural marriage, Joseph Smith married multiple wives and introduced the practice to close associates." The only revelation I know of on polygamy came in July 1843 (D&C 132), yet Joseph Smith had married 22 (by some count) additional wives by July 1843.
2 Big Questions:
1. What revelation did Joseph Smith receive (per the mentioned Gospel Topic Essay) before the D&C 132 revelation that told him to practice polygamy, despite the Book of Mormon's 1830 prohibition (with exception)?
2. In light of the Jacob 2:30 provision for the allowance of polygamy to "raise up seed unto me..." why are there no (known) children that emerged from Joseph Smith's plural wives? Joseph apparently did not use polygamy to 'raise up seed.'
First, please be patient as you read these. This question makes sense in my mind but laying it down correctly is kind of tricky.
PGP (Moses 3) states all things were created spiritually before they were created temporally.
Went to the Sacred Grove in Palmyra, NY recently - a very kind senior missionary/guide told me there were a few "Witness trees" still in the Sacred Grove, these would be trees that were there when the First Vision occurred.
Numbers 22:21-38 Balaam and the talking donkey
The animals in the Manger in Bethlehem where the Savior was born
The Trees in the Garden of Gethsemane
Isaiah - Lion and the lamb shall lie down together without any ire, suggesting they have the ability to progress to a state of total peace?
The Story of the Three Trees (which I understand is not doctrine but IMHO could be, as the spirit bodies of those trees could have demonstrated more faith premortally, than other plants and been given temporary probationary lives on earth where they interacted with the Savior):
“Says one, ‘I cannot believe in the salvation of beasts.’ Any man who would tell you this could not be, would tell you that the revelations are not true. John heard the words of the beast giving glory to God, and understood them. God who made the beasts could understand every language spoken by them. The beasts were four of the most noble animals that filled the measure of their creation, and had been saved from other worlds, because they were perfect. They were like angels in their sphere. We are not told where they came from, and I do not know; but they were seen and heard by John praising and glorifying God.” (DHC, vol. 5, pp. 343–44.)
The ask: Though plants and animals don't have free agency, some of them clearly had more spiritual encounters during their lives on earth. Does this suggest some of them were more valiant in the testimony of the Savior premortally?