PacMan Posted May 15, 2011 Posted May 15, 2011 Note one:Exodus 31:18, 34:1 and 34:27-28 create a bit of an issue. First, the account suggests that the Lord wrote upon the tablets with his "finger." Ex. 34:1 says that God would write upon the second set of tablets those words on the first. And in Ex. 34:27-28, it is clear that Moses did the actual writing. So:Did God actually do any physical writing? I would have to say no, or else there would need be a first set written (physically) by God, the second (physically) written by God, and a third (physically) written by Moses which included the Ten Commandments.Comments?Note two: It is amazing how uptight critics get involving the Papyri being written by the hand of Abraham. If God didn't actually use his finger to do the writing on the tablets, is Moses a likewise fraud?PacMan
Doctrine 612 Posted May 15, 2011 Posted May 15, 2011 Note one:Exodus 31:18, 34:1 and 34:27-28 create a bit of an issue. First, the account suggests that the Lord wrote upon the tablets with his "finger." Ex. 34:1 says that God would write upon the second set of tablets those words on the first. And in Ex. 34:27-28, it is clear that Moses did the actual writing. So:Did God actually do any physical writing? I would have to say no, or else there would need be a first set written (physically) by God, the second (physically) written by God, and a third (physically) written by Moses which included the Ten Commandments.Comments?Note two: It is amazing how uptight critics get involving the Papyri being written by the hand of Abraham. If God didn't actually use his finger to do the writing on the tablets, is Moses a likewise fraud?PacManmust not forget that the first set were broken by moses when he saw everyone being bad. i mean it took only one time for them to ask aaron if he would make them a golden calf.the way i read it is that god wrote the first and the moses wrote the 2nd set.
PacMan Posted May 16, 2011 Author Posted May 16, 2011 must not forget that the first set were broken by moses when he saw everyone being bad. i mean it took only one time for them to ask aaron if he would make them a golden calf.the way i read it is that god wrote the first and the moses wrote the 2nd set.I would agree, except that there is no difference between the first writing and the planned second writing.Next question: There has been the idea that a higher law was written on the first set. Anyone have a source for that?PacMan
TAO Posted May 16, 2011 Posted May 16, 2011 I would agree, except that there is no difference between the first writing and the planned second writing.Next question: There has been the idea that a higher law was written on the first set. Anyone have a source for that?PacManJST, I believe.Edit: Yah, here's the quote:Exodus 34:1-2 JST1 And the Lord said unto Moses, Hew thee two other tables of stone, like unto the first, and I will write upon them also, the words of the law, according as they were written at the first on the tables which thou brakest; but it shall not be according to the first, for I will take away the priesthood out of their midst; therefore my holy order, and the ordinances thereof, shall not go before them; for my presence shall not go up in their midst, lest I destroy them.2 But I will give unto them the law as at the first, but it shall be after the law of a carnal commandment; for I have sworn in my wrath, that they shall not enter into my presence, into my rest, in the days of their pilgrimage. Therefore do as I have commanded thee, and be ready in the morning, and come up in the morning unto mount Sinai, and present thyself there to me, in the top of the mount.
PacMan Posted May 16, 2011 Author Posted May 16, 2011 JST, I believe.Edit: Yah, here's the quote:So final question: Are there any extant works that substantiate the JST?
LeSellers Posted May 17, 2011 Posted May 17, 2011 So final question: Are there any extant works that substantiate the JST?What would constitute an "extant work"? How much does such a work have to substantiate of it? I mean what if there were an ancient document disocvered tomorrow that was essentially a copy of Moses 1 or JS-Matthew? Is that enough?Lehi
PacMan Posted May 20, 2011 Author Posted May 20, 2011 What would constitute an "extant work"? How much does such a work have to substantiate of it? I mean what if there were an ancient document disocvered tomorrow that was essentially a copy of Moses 1 or JS-Matthew? Is that enough?LehiSure. I just wonder if there's non latter-day supporting evidence.
volgadon Posted May 22, 2011 Posted May 22, 2011 Sure. I just wonder if there's non latter-day supporting evidence.Sort of. There is a similar idea in later stratas of the Zohar, but I've been unable to progress much in my research on it.
PacMan Posted May 22, 2011 Author Posted May 22, 2011 Sort of. There is a similar idea in later stratas of the Zohar, but I've been unable to progress much in my research on it.Got a cite?
PacMan Posted May 22, 2011 Author Posted May 22, 2011 Got a cite?Found this on google books:http://books.google.com/books?id=gHXqB_ITcDoC&pg=RA1-PA369&lpg=RA1-PA369&dq=zohar+second+tablets&source=bl&ots=Gkn736b-5l&sig=qXWaLGFy0ZKbg6U639q7hNCQVFs&hl=en&ei=FpvZTcKzFo26sAOOmbWODA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&sqi=2&ved=0CBkQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=zohar%20second%20tablets&f=false
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