Mordecai Posted April 28, 2011 Share Posted April 28, 2011 We've discussed this in the past, but I've been rereading John Gee's Early Christians and had some thoughts and questions. First of all, why does Paul, in the book of Romans, puts so much emphasis on using the mouth to make the covenant. We would put emphasis on baptism or partaking of the Sacrament, but Paul insists that the terms are "agreed upon toward salvation... by means of the mouth" (Romans 10:9-10, John Gee translator). Furthermore, in Romans 10:14, Gee's translation, Paul inquires, "How shall they make an agreement with him whom they have not obeyed?" which doesn't seem to make a lot of sense. Any thoughts? Not being a scholar, my input may be of little value. However, I was thinking that LDS folks do agree to the terms by means of the mouth in two different settings: prior to baptism in priesthood interviews and after the Sacrament prayer. Still, it is surprising to me, the emphasis placed upon this by Paul. As far as "How shall they make an agreement with him whom they have not obeyed?" I am at a loss. Link to comment
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