Jump to content

Trying spirits


inquiringmind

Recommended Posts

I recently witnessed something that was at least unusual (at a non-Mormon house meeting.)

I saw a young man who discribed himself as "Wiccan" go into convulsions while others were praying for him.

The convulsions became violent, and he appeared to lose consciousness before they "performed an exorcism."

When he came to, he didn't seem to know where he was or what had happened.

I don't know if anything supernatural was going on, but what made it convincing is that I noticed the hairs on top of his head trembling ever so slightly as soon as they started praying for him, and watched this almost imperceptible trembling grow into a full blown convulsion.

(I'm not sure you could cause your body to start trembling so slightly, and if he did he was a very good actor.)

Anyway, I'm wondering how you would know if a spirit was of God, if you actually had a personal encounter with one?

! John 4:2 seems to say that ANY spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ came in the flesh is of God, but a demonic spirit seems to have acknowledged the preaching of "Jesus Christ come in the flesh" as a message from God in Acts 16.

Now it happened, as we went to prayer, that a certain slave girl possesed with a spirit of divination met us, who brought her masters much profit by fortune telling. This girl followed Paul and us, saying "These men are servants of the Most High God, who proclaim to us the way of salvation." And this she did for many days. But Paul, greatly annoyed, turned and said to the spirit, "I command you in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her." (Acts 16:16-18.)

So was this spirit "of God" because it confirmed the message of Paul and his companions (that Jesus Christ had come in the flesh)?

If you actually encountered a spirit, could you tell that it was from God by asking it this test question?

If not, what does 1 John 4:2 mean?

(It says "every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ came in the flesh is of God.")

I've never understood this, and it's always bothered me.

Is there a contradiction here?

Does anyone have any thoughts?

Link to comment

I recently witnessed something that was at least unusual (at a non-Mormon house meeting.)

I saw a young man who discribed himself as "Wiccan" go into convulsions while others were praying for him.

The convulsions became violent, and he appeared to lose consciousness before they "performed an exorcism."

When he came to, he didn't seem to know where he was or what had happened.

I don't know if anything supernatural was going on, but what made it convincing is that I noticed the hairs on top of his head trembling ever so slightly as soon as they started praying for him, and watched this almost imperceptible trembling grow into a full blown convulsion.

(I'm not sure you could cause your body to start trembling so slightly, and if he did he was a very good actor.)

Anyway, I'm wondering how you would know if a spirit was of God, if you actually had a personal encounter with one?

! John 4:2 seems to say that ANY spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ came in the flesh is of God, but a demonic spirit seems to have acknowledged the preaching of "Jesus Christ come in the flesh" as a message from God in Acts 16.

Now it happened, as we went to prayer, that a certain slave girl possesed with a spirit of divination met us, who brought her masters much profit by fortune telling. This girl followed Paul and us, saying "These men are servants of the Most High God, who proclaim to us the way of salvation." And this she did for many days. But Paul, greatly annoyed, turned and said to the spirit, "I command you in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her." (Acts 16:16-18.)

So was this spirit "of God" because it confirmed the message of Paul and his companions (that Jesus Christ had come in the flesh)?

If you actually encountered a spirit, could you tell that it was from God by asking it this test question?

If not, what does 1 John 4:2 mean?

(It says "every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ came in the flesh is of God.")

I've never understood this, and it's always bothered me.

Is there a contradiction here?

Does anyone have any thoughts?

Interesting questions.

Historically, a lot of the Gnostics denied that Jesus Christ had come in the flesh. So in the late first and second centuries, this became a controversial issue. Something that John would have an opinion about.

Kevin Christensen

Pittsburgh, PA

Link to comment

If not, what does 1 John 4:2 mean?

(It says "every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ came in the flesh is of God.")

People are spirits (in bodies). When they confess in unison with the Holy Spirit "that Jesus Christ came in the flesh" then indeed they are in line with God. Sometimes they confess in word, sometimes in deed, sometimes in appearance, sometimes in spirit and sometimes by the gifts of the Spirit. I suppose these various types of manifestations, or the various people expressing themselves in various ways, can come across as a form of spirit.

Link to comment

Was he edified because of these convulsions ? Was he drawn to Christ ?

By the convulsions?

No.

But the people who prayed for him believed they cast out whatever it was.

Would that be "edifying"?

These prayers believed in God, and in Jesus (in some sense), but they weren't Mormons (and most Christians would consider their beliefs very unorthodox.)

At first, I think I was the only one there who prayed "in the name of Jesus" (though one or two of them repeated the sentiment after me, and I threw in "Mary and Joseph.")

Link to comment

If someone were having severe convulsions, in my home, I would be inclined to get medical help.

Link to comment

Archived

This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.

Guest
This topic is now closed to further replies.
  • Recently Browsing   0 members

    • No registered users viewing this page.
×
×
  • Create New...