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Help with passages from Luke


UpperDarby

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(1)

18 Whosoever shall fall upon that stone shall be broken; but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will agrind him to powder.
In the verses Luke 20: 12- 18 Jesus gives the parable of the wicked husbandmen. Here in this partical verse (please correct if I'm wrong) Jesus is referring to himself as the stone. Now my question is: What is the difference between falling upon Christ and being broken, and having Christ fall upon and being grinded to powder?

Is it to say that those that kill the Savior will be broken, while those whom the Savior falls upon (with His warth) will be grinded to dust?

(2) What do you make of the verse from Luke 20: 27- 39?

Specifically what about verse 38, what does Jesus mean by saying that Heavenly Father is not a God to the dead but to the living?

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(1) In the verses Luke 20: 12- 18 Jesus gives the parable of the wicked husbandmen. Here in this partical verse (please correct if I'm wrong) Jesus is referring to himself as the stone. Now my question is: What is the difference between falling upon Christ and being broken, and having Christ fall upon and being grinded to powder?

The first part of verse 18 is fairly easy to interpret. The previous verse cites Ps. 118:22, which Joachim Jeremias notes was "one of the primitive Church's favorite proof-texts for the resurrection and exaltation of the rejected Christ." Thus, the "stone" in verse 18 is Christ.

Luke's "whosoever shall fall upon this stone shall be broken" is almost certainly an allusion to Isaiah 8:14

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Is it to say that those that kill the Savior will be broken, while those whom the Savior falls upon (with His wrath) will be ground to dust?

Clearly there is a distinction to be made between tripping on a stone and breaking a bone, and being pulverized by a boulder. The scripture is clear that the former applies to those Jews who rejected Jesus as Messiah. The latter consequence would not, I suspect, apply to those who were blinded to the truth, but rather to those whose eyes are open, who fight against Christ knowingly

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(1) In the verses Luke 20: 12- 18 Jesus gives the parable of the wicked husbandmen. Here in this partical verse (please correct if I'm wrong) Jesus is referring to himself as the stone. Now my question is: What is the difference between falling upon Christ and being broken, and having Christ fall upon and being grinded to powder?

Is it to say that those that kill the Savior will be broken, while those whom the Savior falls upon (with His warth) will be grinded to dust?

(2) What do you make of the verse from Luke 20: 27- 39?

Specifically what about verse 38, what does Jesus mean by saying that Heavenly Father is not a God to the dead but to the living?

But they that shall be accounted worthy of that world and of the resurrection from the dead shall neither be married nor take wives. Neither can they die any more for they are equal to the angels and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection. Now that the dead rise again, Moses also showed at the bush, when he called the Lord: The God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob.
---vv.33-35

Jesus was confronted with the Sadducees who deny any resurrection. They reasoned from the fact that the Scriptures clearly instruct the Jewish widows to take as husbands, the surviving younger brothers. It seemed absurd to them that the woman could be married to all of the brothers in heaven. They therefore thought they had a difficult question for Jesus, who had been preaching the resurrection when they asked "In the resurrection therefore, whose wife of them shall she be? For all the seven had her to wife." But they erred in assuming that we are married in the Resurrection. That is how Catholics interpet the passage anyway.

The following passage continues the same theme. Jesus understands Moses' prayer at the bush to the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as a recognition that they still lived in the post-mortal life. They were alive, and this makes a Resurrection of the body plausible as Jesus affirms that God is God of the living, not the dead. If the dead exist no more, are annihilated with the body, in what way during the time of Moses, was God the God of those dead patriarchs? Jesus is suggesting that the custom of referring to the God of someone who has passed from this life, implies that they continue to live in the next life. It might not be immediately obvious, but I think sober reflection would reveal that this is how Jesus should be understood.

Anyway...I don't mean to say that Mormons don't have another way to handle the passage as it relates to marriage in heaven. But at least it can give you the opportunity to consider why Catholics have mistakenly from your perspective, concluded that there is no marriage in heaven.

Regards,

3DOP

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