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The Revelation at Mount Sinai (TORAH)


Thorkyll

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To everyone that is posting on this thread... ThorkyII isn't a Christian. He must be Jewish or something. (I havent been able to determine)

Isaiah is not God, he's not writing word-for-word what God is telling him to write. He's a human being -- a social activist -- raging the fire of divine pathos, he sees injustice and corruption through the eyes of God. What you see in Isaiah are not God's words. Deuteronomy has God's words. Deuteronomy sets the standard for understanding Isaiah, not vice versa. Either way, regardless of what the pagan goddess meant, it has no bearing on what God meant by the same words centuries earlier.

Deuteronomy tells us how to Interpret Isaiah? The book that was "Magically" found in the Rubble of the Temple?

So why does Deuteronomy RE-Interpret Exodus?

Ex. 19: 11

11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the Lord will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai.

Ex. 24: 10-11

10 And they saw the God of Israel: and there was under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in his clearness.

11 And upon the nobles of the children of Israel he laid not his hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink.

Versus...

Deut 4

12 And the Lord spake unto you out of the midst of the fire: ye heard the voice of the words, but saw no similitude; only ye heard a voice.

13 And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone.

14

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Thorkyll, on 16 November 2009 - 01:24 PM, said:

Isn't the Greek word for "god" in 2 Corinthians 4:4 supposed to be a translation of elohim?

If you have a point to make please make it.

I don't have a point. I'm just curious whether the devil is being called an elohim in this verse.

I don't know anything about Greek or the New Testament.

Is the devil a god or not?

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To everyone that is posting on this thread... ThorkyII isn't a Christian. He must be Jewish or something. (I havent been able to determine)

Deuteronomy tells us how to Interpret Isaiah? The book that was "Magically" found in the Rubble of the Temple?

So why does Deuteronomy RE-Interpret Exodus?

Ex. 19: 11

11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the Lord will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai.

Ex. 24: 10-11

10 And they saw the God of Israel: and there was under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in his clearness.

11 And upon the nobles of the children of Israel he laid not his hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink.

Versus...

Deut 4

12 And the Lord spake unto you out of the midst of the fire: ye heard the voice of the words, but saw no similitude; only ye heard a voice.

13 And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone.

14

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Did you just call me an idiot? You'd get an infraction for that on CARM. :P

Anyway, what I OBVIOUSLY meant was: "is the Greek, theos, in this

verse intended as equivalent to the Hebrew, elohim?".

Is this mythical devil character one of the elohim?

And if so, how can a devil be elohim, yet angels cannot?

I called your QUESTION idiotic.

Now if for some unconscious reason you want to project the status of being "idiotic" upon yourself, have at it. But it will be you doing it NOT me. And as they say "if the shoe fits".

ACCEPT that it isn't "equivalent". Elohim is plural. Theos is singular. Not the same.

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I called your QUESTION idiotic.

Now if for some unconscious reason you want to project the status of being "idiotic" upon yourself, have at it. But it will be you doing it NOT me. And as they say "if the shoe fits".

ACCEPT that it isn't "equivalent". Elohim is plural. Theos is singular. Not the same.

I don't think you read my post properly. I was ASKING a question, not STATING a fact.

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I don't have a point. I'm just curious whether the devil is being called an elohim in this verse.

I don't know anything about Greek or the New Testament.

Is the devil a god or not?

I will ASSUME that you are sincere, for now.

The verse is rather clear, "the god of this world" blinds the minds of people to lead them away from God. Notice that it doesn't say "the god of the earth" or "the god of heaven". The "world" means the things of this world only and not the things of heaven. The desires of "this world" are for money, power over others, the illicit pleasures of this world. Those that worship and/or strive for these things are following "the devil" and therefore he is their god. Not in the divine or godly sense.

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You do realize that the revelation at Sinai was national and

that its contents were passed down not only as a nation but

individually within each family unit? We're not talking about

a text here, we're talking about an oral covenant with Israel.

What was originally written on the mezuzot and the tefillin?

Not everything contained in the Torah was communicated at Sinai, Talmudic claims to the contrary, notwithstanding. :P

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