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Is there preceding scriputers explaining why Jesus was only sent to Israel


Ray Callis Hatton III

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What was the primary cause or reasoning for having Jesus go to Israel first? I've heard it was a promises to Abraham and I've heard others talk about it being the result of the scattering of Israel and it is somehow important to the latter day gathering.

To fulfill the prophets who testified of him, to visit those who were expecting him, to make possible the promise of the Father and baptize with fire and with the Holy Ghost, to publish peace and preach the acceptable year of the Lord, to open the prison doors, to proclaim unto all Israel that their God reigneth, to finish his preparations and accomplish the will of the Father, to overcome the world, to accomplish an atonement for a redemption of mankind, to seek that which was lost, to gather Israel as a hen gathers her chickens under her wings, to show the way, the truth, and the life, to be a light unto the world, to send out apostles, to be bruised for our iniquities, to take upon himself our chastisement, to be rejected, spit upon, whipped and mocked and scorned, and deliver up the kingdom of God triumphant, to make use of the Jewish hypocrisy that was ripe enough to crucify their king, to become the resurrection and the life of man, and establish who it was that he would some day return to. That's some of it. Of course you knew all this. I just wanted to go through it. Thanks

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Is there a specific scriptural event for why Jesus had a singular priority to the only preach to Israelites and to strictly exclude Gentiles?

If you mean one before Christ himself said that he was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel?

Only prophecies of his advent. It would be really interesting if a colony of Jaredites, that were righteous, were led away and eventually got a personal visit from Christ.

I just wrote up a rationale about Book of Mormon evidences that made the point that all the inhabitants of American could be counted Israel even though they are of Asian (Jaredite) descent because they are the children of a once righteous people even a zion or two. Joseph Smith made the point that everyone who receives the gospel is counted as children of Abraham. So Christ can tell Joseph Smith to go the line between Jew and Gentile and it be reckoned accurate regardless of DNA. Now that is some original thinking! I think. Anybody ever think that before?

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What was the primary cause or reasoning for having Jesus go to only Israel at first? I've heard it was some sort of promise to Abraham and I've also heard others talk about it being the result of the scattering of Israel and it was somehow important to eventually gather them again.

1. He was not commanded to do so (3 Nephi 15:23).

2. His ministry did not intersect with "their time" (see #3) in relation to the principle of "the first shall be last and the last shall be first" -- 1 Nephi 13:42 and D&C 90:9.

3. "Their time", or, "the "bounds of their habitation (Acts 17:26)" for both Jew and Gentile -- the whens, wheres, and hows of their receiving the Gospel -- as described in Acts 17:26 are ordered so as to best execute the Father's work and glory (Moses 1:39).

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If you mean one before Christ himself said that he was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel?

Only prophecies of his advent. It would be really interesting if a colony of Jaredites, that were righteous, were led away and eventually got a personal visit from Christ.

I just wrote up a rationale about Book of Mormon evidences that made the point that all the inhabitants of American could be counted Israel even though they are of Asian (Jaredite) descent because they are the children of a once righteous people even a zion or two. Joseph Smith made the point that everyone who receives the gospel is counted as children of Abraham. So Christ can tell Joseph Smith to go the line between Jew and Gentile and it be reckoned accurate regardless of DNA. Now that is some original thinking! I think. Anybody ever think that before?

no matter how one may reckon it, with d,n.a or scripture; it all comes out to be true either way. :P

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What was the primary cause or reasoning for having Jesus go to only Israel at first? I've heard it was some sort of promise to Abraham and I've also heard others talk about it being the result of the scattering of Israel and it was somehow important to eventually gather them again.

... and #4, before the law was fulfilled, He did not serve outside the covenant people; the reasons for this are evident from many of the Old testament scriptures about the law as well as His prophesied first advent. And after the law was fulfilled, He was resurrected and a personal, proselyting ministry would be too much for the uninitiated to bear and not consistent with how the plan would play out through the latter days. I guess this ties back to #3.

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2 Nephi 10:3

Wherefore, as I said unto you, it must needs be expedient that Christâ??for in the last night the angel spake unto me that this should be his nameâ??should come among the Jews, among those who are the more wicked part of the world; and they shall crucify himâ??for thus it behooveth our God, and there is none other nation on earth that would crucify their God.
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