maklelan Posted September 10, 2008 Share Posted September 10, 2008 I found something interesting in Judges 19 while doing some reading for my text and temples class. In verse 18 a man says (according to the KJV), "I went to Bethlehem-Judah, but I am now going to the house of the Lord." The "am now" part is italicized, though. I checked the Hebrew and the text reads as follows:וָאֵלֵךְ עַד־בֵּית לֶחֶם יְהוּדָה וְאֶת־בֵּית יְהוָה אֲנִי הֹלֵךְwhich, according to me, should be, "and I went to Bethlehem-Judah, and I was going to the house of the Lord." There is no justification for the interpolation of "but now" unless you insist on interpreting the participle as present tense, which doesn't make sense considering the man has already stated he's going home to "the far side of mount Ephraim." The LXX has "and I am going to my house" instead of "the house of the Lord," but it has been effectively argued that the Greek translation mistook a single yod, an abbreviation for the tetragrammaton, for the first person singular pronominal suffix.Was there an Israelite temple (or tabernacle) in Bethlehem during the time of the judges? I don't see any reason why not. Link to comment
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