Zakuska Posted August 17, 2007 Posted August 17, 2007 Its the very verse you keep misusing Johhny... Christ quotes it.Matt 19 4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. 7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. He makes it good and clear that the Marriage laws (aka the sacrament of marraige) is the same from the beginning.
Doctor Steuss Posted August 17, 2007 Posted August 17, 2007 It was not a ceremony in a Mormon temple.These little jabs of yours always crack me up.Thank you Captain Obvious for pointing out that there wasn't a "Mormon temple" in Old Testament Times. There also weren't any Mormon apostles if you feel like pointing that out too.Abraham did not do home teaching like the Mormon church does.
johnny Posted August 17, 2007 Posted August 17, 2007 Zakuska,He makes it good and clear that the Marriage laws (aka the sacrament of marraige) is the same from the beginning.Marriage laws are NOT the same as a sacrament. Sacraments are "powers that comes forth" from the Body of Christ.
Lachoneus Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 It was not the sacrament of marriage because the sacrament of marriage is part of the New Covenant. This is a false statement. Abraham and Adam had all the blessings God ever offered to any of His children irrespective of when they lived.It was not a ceremony in a Mormon temple. Because the Bible does not describe the ceremony, your statement about what the ceremony was or was not is entirely beyond your knowledge and therefore irrelevant.
Lachoneus Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Marriage laws are NOT the same as a sacrament. Sacraments are "powers that comes forth" from the Body of Christ. As previously noted, the ONLY "marriage laws" available to Adam and Eve were the sacrament of marriage. God was the only other person in the Garden who could have married them. And they were married because Eve was Adam's wife. Therefore, the sacrament of marriage was performed for Adam and Eve by God Himself. As Christ explained, this has ALWAYS been available to the righteous and what God has joined together [like He did Adam and Eve] cannot be separated by men.
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Lachoneus,This is a false statement. Abraham and Adam had all the blessings God ever offered to any of His children irrespective of when they lived.Abraham and Adam did not have the blessing of indwelling Holy Ghost because "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39).Therefore, the sacrament of marriage was performed for Adam and Eve by God Himself. As Christ explained, this has ALWAYS been available to the righteous and what God has joined together [like He did Adam and Eve] cannot be separated by men.The grace of living marriage "in the Lord" (1Cor 7:39) has not always been available, this comes from the coming of Christ. The sacrament of Matrimony signifies the union of Christ and the Church (Eph 5:30-32).
Zakuska Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Lachoneus,Abraham and Adam did not have the blessing of indwelling Holy Ghost because "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39).Thats news to Moses and ALL the other OT prophets.Num. 11: 17, 25-26, 29 17 And I will come down and talk with thee there: and I will take of the spirit which is upon thee, and will put it upon them; and they shall abear the burden of the people with thee, that thou bear it not thyself alone. . . . 25 And the LORD came down in a acloud, and spake unto him, and took of the spirit that was upon him, and gave it unto the seventy belders: and it came to pass, that, when the spirit rested upon them, they cprophesied, and did not cease. 26 But there remained two of the men in the camp, the name of the one was Eldad, and the name of the other Medad: and the spirit rested upon them; and they were of them that were written, but went not out unto the tabernacle: and they prophesied in the camp. . . . 29 And Moses said unto him, Enviest thou for my sake? would God that all the LORDâ??s people were prophets, and that the LORD would put his spirit upon them! Isa. 63: 10-11, 14 10
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Zakuska,Thats news to Moses and ALL the other OT prophets.The news was that it was "upon" them in the OT, it was not "indwelling" because "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39).
Zakuska Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Zakuska,The news was that it was "upon" them in the OT, it was not "indwelling" because "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39).A did you miss the last two verses that said it was IN them? Where Isaiah says the Holy Spirit was IN Moses?Heres a few more:Ps. 51: 10-12, 17 10 Create in me a aclean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me. 11 Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me. 12 Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit. • • • 17 The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, thou wilt not despise. Ex 35 30
Lachoneus Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Abraham and Adam did not have the blessing of indwelling Holy Ghost because "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39).Adam had the gift of the Holy Ghost just as all the holy prophets had. (2 Peter 1:21, Numbers 11:25) The reference in John 7:39 is to the disciples. The grace of living marriage "in the Lord" (1Cor 7:39) has not always been available, this comes from the coming of Christ. The sacrament of marriage has been available to the righteous from the time of Adam. Jesus is the same yesterday, today and forever (Heb 13:8 ). His graces have always been available to the righteous.The sacrament of Matrimony signifies the union of Christ and the Church (Eph 5:30-32). Correct and irrelevant. Abraham saw Christ's day and rejoiced (John 8:56). Moses and the children of Israel had the blessings of Christ (1 Cor 10:4). Christ and his blessings are eternal and always available to the righteous.
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Zakuska,Isa. 63: 10-11, 14In other words ... it was in their midst ...Num. 27: 16, 18In other words ... a man of spirit ...Ps. 51: 10-12, 17In other words ... the man's spirit, not the Holy GhostA did you miss the verse that said it was IN them?Did you miss John 7:39, it says:John.7[39] (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)Yes Eph 5:30:32 shows that the marriage sacrament was the same after Christ as it was before.Explain how "it was before" ... how could those in the Old Testament be "members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones" (Eph 5:30)?
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Lachoneus,Adam had the gift of the Holy Ghost just as all the holy prophets had. (2 Peter 1:21, Numbers 11:25) The reference in John 7:39 is to the disciples.None of the verse you quoted talk about the indwelling Holy Ghost:- 2 Peter 1:21 says "they were moved by the Holy Ghost" ... - Numbers 12:25 says "the spirit that was upon him" ...The sacrament of marriage has been available to the righteous from the time of Adam. Jesus is the same yesterday, today and forever (Heb 13:8 ). His graces have always been available to the righteous.I am talking about the grace of indwelling Holy Ghost that comes after Jesus is glorified (John 7:39).Correct and irrelevant. Abraham saw Christ's day and rejoiced (John 8:56). Moses and the children of Israel had the blessings of Christ (1 Cor 10:4). Christ and his blessings are eternal and always available to the righteous. Again I am talking about the indwelling Holy Ghost, "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39) to those in the Old Testament.
Zakuska Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 In other words ... it was in their midst ...In other words ... a man of spirit ...In other words ... the man's spirit, not the Holy GhostNice Dodge... Harry... Maybe if you wave your wand hard enough they will all disappear... the spirit was IN them plain and simple.Daniel had this spirit IN him as well.Dan. 6: 3 3 Then this Daniel was preferred above the presidents and princes, because an excellent aspirit was in him; and the king thought to set him bover the whole realm. The Spirit had not yet been given to the Apostles.Explain how "it was before" ... how could those in the Old Testament be "members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones" (Eph 5:30)?The same way we are by the sacraments of the Baptisms and the indwelling of the Holy Ghost, Or are you saying Paul was lieing. 1 Cor 10 1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; 2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; 3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ. Was not the Gospel preached unto them as well?
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Zakuska,Nice Dodge... Harry... Maybe if you wave your wand hard enough they will all disappear... the spirit was IN them plain and simple.How could the Holy Ghost be IN them if it is not yet given (John 7:39) ...The same way we are, Or are you saying Paul was lieing. Was not the Gospel preached unto them as well?1 Cor 10 does not saying nothing about being "in the Lord" (1Cor 7:39)
Lachoneus Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 None of the verse you quoted talk about the indwelling Holy Ghost:Yes they do. All the prophets enjoyed the gift of the Holy Ghost. Whether the word is "upon" or "in" is irrelevant. I am talking about the grace of indwelling Holy Ghost that comes after Jesus is glorified (John 7:39).It came to the disciples after Jesus was glorified. It came to Adam and all the holy prophets after him before Christ was glorified. Again I am talking about the indwelling Holy Ghost, "the Holy Ghost was not yet given" (John 7:39) to those in the Old Testament. Again I am explaining that the Holy Ghost was available to those in the Old Testament. John 5:39 does not mention the Old Testament prophets; you fabricated that part.
Zakuska Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Zakuska,How could the Holy Ghost be IN them if it is not yet given (John 7:39) ...The Holy Ghost had not yet been Given to the Apostles of Christs Generation. But that doesn't mean that he had not been Given to the Prophets of Old. How else did they write so much "god breathed" Scripture?1 Cor 10 does not saying nothing about being "in the Lord" (1Cor 7:39) But it sure talks about JESUS Christ Being IN Moses because he and the Elders of Israel Drank him and ate him.
johnny Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Lachoneus and Zakuska,It looks we are straying way off-topic, since I don't want to get in trouble with the moderators I am going to stick with the topic of this thread which is "Eternal marriage" ...Have a good night,johnny
Zakuska Posted August 18, 2007 Posted August 18, 2007 Johhny just pulled a Jaybear. When You get backed into a corner...fain Moderator intervention and change the subject. So lets see Moses and the Elders of Israel had the sacrament of Baptism. Christ says the sacrament of Marriage is the same for all those before Moses as well as all of those after him. Why are you making things so difficult Johnny?
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