telnetd
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Emma had serious disagreements with Brigham Young, particularly over Church leadership and property after Joseph's death. She would join the Reorganized Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints, led by her son Joseph Smith III More about her can be found here. "Emma struggled deeply with the principle of plural marriage. Joseph introduced the practice carefully and incrementally, marrying many additional wives, each of whom vowed to keep their participation confidential. Nevertheless, it is apparent that Joseph withheld knowledge of some of these relationships from Emma. In early 1843, Emma appears to have accepted plural marriage and personally consented to and witnessed Joseph’s marriages to four women. But by July, her attitude toward the practice had shifted again, and she burned a manuscript copy of the revelation on plural marriage now found in Doctrine and Covenants 132".
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Yes. Whether the newly formed Gods will use their reproductive organs to produce spirit children is questionable. I haven't see any teachings of your church which say how Mother and Father interacted in their marriage to perform this. But if they did, one shouldn't be offended by the thought.
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The introduction notes to Doctrine and Covenants 132 says "Celestial marriage and a continuation of the family unit enable men to become gods".
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When do spirits of men and women become gods?
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What glory did Jesus have before he was born to his heavenly mother?
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When and how?
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Immortal men and women (as souls) are gods before being born to heavenly parents?
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This wouldn't explain why Joseph Smith retranslated John 1:1. "In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God". "The gospel is the word and the word was with the Son" as opposed to Jesus being the Word in the KJV, and the Word (Jesus) became flesh. What was Joseph Smith trying to convey? If the word was with the Son and the gospel was the word, what became flesh? Jesus or the word? Was the word with Jesus before he is born to his heavenly mother?
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The "kind" of being God is ... is a deity. So no, I don't believe we are this "kind" of being. You may consider yourself an eternal (unformed) being but you will never be an eternal (unformed) God. By eternal being I assume you mean an eternal, uncreated intelligence. Your version of Christ was one of these before he was born to Heavenly Mother. Prior to that spiritual birth (maybe physical, a more purer form of matter?), he was not the Eternal God. I gather this from Abraham 3:21-24.
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Maybe not the way you understand them. But we know there is no scripture which teaches Jesus became the first spirit child of a heavenly mother who then became a God before taking on a mortal body.
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I'm not sure what else to add. The God of the Bible is the only true God. He has always existed as God. Jesus has always existed as God. He was never a spirit child of heavenly parents who became a God. The church created a pandora's box with its doctrine of Heavenly Mother. It cannot explain how she became a God, whether she married just a man or a God/man on the world she grew up on, or if some other Saviour provided an atonement for her sins and for the man who would become the God of our world. Maybe you know.
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You mean his spirit children with which he populated that world? Was Jesus even born to his heavenly mother when the Father created that other world?
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The kind of being that God is is a God. So I reject the idea that we are the same kind of being God is. The only being who is both God and man is Jesus Christ. Acts 17:28-29 does not imply a heavenly mother. Paul's argument is that God should not be viewed as the work of human hands. The Romans and Greeks even fashioned their Gods to appear as human (Zeus, Apollo, etc). Based on the Pearl of Great Price, your church would extend this backward in time, when spirit children, including Jesus and Lucifer, were not the same kind of being God is. Do you believe Jesus becomes the same kind of being God is when he is born to his heavenly mother?
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If getting power to create a world means being a God, then Heavenly Father is not God before creating his worlds.
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Did the Father work with others to create his world like Jesus did with Earth (who did what he saw the Father do)? Or was Jesus even born to his heavenly mother when the Father created a world for wife?
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God the Father is not an exalted human man from another world. Being created in the image of God does not make us underdeveloped Gods.
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"The Prophet taught that our Father had a Father and so on. Is not this a reasonable thought, especially when we remember that the promises are made to us that we may become like him?" (Joseph Fielding Smith, Doctrines of Salvation). "If Abraham reasoned thus—If Jesus Christ was the Son of God, and John discovered that God the Father of Jesus Christ had a Father, you may suppose that He had a Father also. Where was there ever a son without a father? And where was there ever a father without first being a son? Whenever did a tree or anything spring into existence without a progenitor? And everything comes in this way. Paul says that which is earthly is in the likeness of that which is heavenly, Hence if Jesus had a Father,10 can we not believe that He had a Father also? I despise the idea of being scared to death at such a doctrine, for the Bible is full of it" (Teachings of Joseph Smith).
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Who made that earth where God the Father lived on?
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I don't believe they had a doctrine like your church. Which early Christians believed Jesus was the first spirit child of a heavenly mother/Goddess wife of Heavenly Father? Begotten, not made. And not a product of a celestial marriage. If we are, present tense, the same kind of being as God, then we are Gods now, although less developed. In your church, part of "our spirits came from God", is that they are formed through some method as spirit children to a male and female God.
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A Pearl of Great Price manual says these were figurative trees. "The scriptures set forth that there were in the Garden of Eden two trees. One was the tree of life, which figuratively refers to eternal life; the other was the tree of knowledge of good and evil, which figuratively refers to how and why and in what manner mortality and all that appertains to it came into being” (A New Witness for the Articles of Faith [1985], 86)." But an earlier Ensign article in February 1994 says it was literal. "As Latter-day Saints, we believe that Adam and Eve partook of actual fruit. Joseph Fielding Smith also explained, “This was a transgression of the law, but not a sin in the strict sense, for it was something that Adam and Eve had to do!” (Doctrines of Salvation, 1:115.)". According to 2 Nephi 2:15, "it must needs be that there was an opposition; even the forbidden fruit in opposition to the tree of life; the one being sweet and the other bitter". Was the ordering of the terms "sweet" and "bitter" done intentionally to reflect that the forbidden fruit was sweet? If the trees were not literal, how would one interpret Moses 4:13: "they sewed fig leaves together and made themselves aprons" to cover their nakedness?
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Which of the various transcripts of the Follett discourse shows Heavenly Father does not have a father above Him?
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Is Heavenly Mother a spirit child of her mother?
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Jesus is an eternal being in that he has always existed externally in one form or another, but he has no existed eternally as God. The church (of which you belong) teaches he became a God. . Yes. Jesus was one of these organized spirits. He was the first one organized from an intelligence into a spirit child of his heavenly mother. Then he progressed into becoming a God before he took on mortality. Christ is the only-begotten. Early Christians didn't mean offspring in the sense of a heavenly mother. It's possible God can create matter out of nothing.
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You should make a more clearer and concise statement like "God the Father atoned for the children of his own heavenly mother and father". This would satisfy a portion of your "Jesus did what he saw the Father do" statement. Don't be afraid to claim, like Joseph Smith, there is a God above God the Father. Was she organized (or created) by her own heavenly parents or do you speculate God's Father allowed him the special privilege to organize (create) his own future wife and provide an atonement for her sins?
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"Eternal" in the sense he always existed in some form but not "eternally" existing as a son before he becomes a son born to heavenly parents. He is therefore "co-eternal" even before becoming a son and then becoming a God. What was the being (who would eventually become Jesus the Son) organized from? Yes. Firstborn does not mean first organized or a being becoming the first born son of heavenly parents. It's possible for ex-nihilo to be true. In the LDS view, matter exists before some being or thing becomes a spirit child, later to get the name Jesus.
