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British Israelism?

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If Joseph Smith was a descendent of Ephraim, does that mean there's something to British Israelism (or did he have some native American blood)?

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If Joseph Smith was a descendent of Ephraim, does that mean there's something to British Israelism (or did he have some native American blood)?

I've always thought of Great Britain when reading 1 Nephi 22:4, and I don't think it was a coincidence that the first great missionary effort was to England.

1 Nephi 22:4

"Yea, the more part of all the tribes have been led away; and they are scattered to and fro upon the isles of the sea; and whither they are none of us knoweth, save that we know that they have been led away."

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If Joseph Smith was a descendent of Ephraim, does that mean there's something to British Israelism (or did he have some native American blood)?

My PB states that I am a descendent of Ephraim, but I do not descend from England. I don't think there is anything to British Israelism, IMHO. Smith never claimed to have an ancestry from Native Americans. I don't read anything into his lineage and the location of his gggrandparents. Ephraimites come from many different areas of the world.

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If Joseph Smith was a descendent of Ephraim, does that mean there's something to British Israelism (or did he have some native American blood)?

Speaking of Britain and Scandinavia, Joseph said, "Ephraim dwells largely in those parts."

Lehi

Edited by LeSellers

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If Joseph Smith was a descendent of Ephraim, does that mean there's something to British Israelism (or did he have some native American blood)?

In Mormon thought, the idea seems to be fading away, particularly as Mormons move away from literal declarations of lineage in Patriarchal Blessings. Most General Authority statements reflective of this type of thought appear to be a byproduct of a much larger prevailing thought from the time.

I hope this helps:

British Israelism - By Common Consent

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Speaking of Britain and Scandinavia, Joseph said, "Ephraim dwells largely in those parts."

Lehi

That makes sense to me.

But if Joseph was Ephraimite, and most 19th century Amercan WASPS were of Israelite descent, why is the BOM said to come forth from the Gentiles?

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if Joseph was Ephraimite, and most 19th century Amercan WASPS were of Israelite descent, why is the BOM said to come forth from the Gentiles?

I believe it is because Joseph and the early brethren and sisters were not Jewish Israelites. They were, ab initio, Christian Israelites. They were not seen as "Jews" by anyone, not themselves, not Jews, and not by other Christians.

Lehi

Edited by LeSellers

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Although there were unfounded rumours that some, like Orosn Hyde, were of Jewish descent.

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In Mormon thought, the idea seems to be fading away, particularly as Mormons move away from literal declarations of lineage in Patriarchal Blessings. Most General Authority statements reflective of this type of thought appear to be a byproduct of a much larger prevailing thought from the time.

I hope this helps:

British Israelism - By Common Consent

This is an interesting statement. I reviewed many, many of the early PB of the Church. Very few of them identified a specific tribe; they only identified the individual as a member of the House of Israel. What this signifies to me is that at first there was not priority to tribal affiliation; that happened latter. There was always an acknowledgement of either being a literal descendant or being adopted into a tribe. The more things change the more things stay the same.

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