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Is our current Bible corrupted?


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#61 maklelan

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Posted 07 December 2010 - 09:45 AM

View PostRob Bowman, on 07 December 2010 - 06:30 AM, said:

maklelan,

You had stated that "conservative Christians" favored the view that the explanation for Matthew 2:23 is that Jews had altered the text of Isaiah 11:1 to obscure its reference to Jesus as a Nazarene. I asked you which conservative Christians took this view. You replied:

This is a bit frustrating. I wasted time looking up all five of your references; not one of them supports the textual corruption claim. What gives?

I wasn't referring to the textual corruption theory, just the general notion that Isa 11:1 is the source for the prophecy in Matthew. That was my fault for not being more clear. I apologize for that.

#62 ElfLord

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Posted 07 December 2010 - 09:59 AM

Some more histroy on this...

Quote

Etymology
Nazarene is anglicized from Greek Nazar?ne (????????), a word applied to Jesus in the New Testament.[9] Several Hebrew words have been suggested as roots:

[edit] Nazareth
The issue of whether Nazarene is derived from Nazareth has been the subject of much scholarly conjecture since the 19th century.[10] "Nazareth", in turn, may be derived from either na·tsar, ?????, meaning "to watch,"[11] or from ne·tser, ??????, meaning branch.[12]

The Greek phrase usually translated as "Jesus of Nazareth" (i?sous o naz?raios) can be translated more literally as "Jesus the Nazarene (Nazorean or Nazaraean)."[13] No one else is referred to in scripture in this way, not even other people from Nazareth. For example, the father of Jesus is i?s?ph ton apo nazaret (Joseph of Nazareth).[14]

"Nazareth" and "Nazarene" are complementary only in Greek, where they possess the "z", or voiced [aspirated] sibilant. In Semitic languages, "Nazarene" and its cognates Nazareth, Nazara, and Nazorean/Nazaraean possess the unvoiced (unaspirated) sibilant corresponding to the "s" or "ts" sound. Voiced and unvoiced sounds follow separate linguistic pathways. The Greek forms referring to Nazareth should therefore be Nasarene, Nasoraios, and Nasareth. The additional vowel (?) in Nazorean makes this variation more difficult to derive, although a weak Aramaic vowel in "Nazareth" has been suggested as a possible source.[3]

[edit] Ne·tzer
ne·tser (??????, n-ts-r), pronounced nay'·tser, meaning "branch", "flower", or "offshoot". Derived from na·tsar. (See below.)[15]
Jerome (c. 347 – 420) linked "Nazarene" to a messianic prophecy by Isaiah, claiming that "Nazarene" was the Hebrew reading of a word modern scholars read as ne·tzer (branch).[16] The text from Isaiah is:

“ There shall come forth a Rod from the stem of Jesse, And a Branch shall grow out of his roots.
ve·ya·tza cho·ter mig·ge·za yi·shai ve·ne·tzer mi·sha·ra·shav yif·reh.[5]


In ancient Hebrew texts, vowels were not indicated, so a wider variety of readings was possible in Jerome's time. Here branch/Nazarene is metaphorically "descendant" (of Jesse, father of King David). Eusebius, a fourth century Christian polemicist, also argued that Isaiah was the source of "Nazarene." This prophecy by Isaiah was extremely popular in New Testament times and is also referred to in Romans and Revelation.[17]

[edit] Other suggested roots
na·tsar (?????, n-ts-r), pronounced naw·tsar', meaning "to watch, guard, keep".[18] This word also has a messianic association based on a passage in Jeremiah.[19]
na·zir (??????, n-z-r), pronounced naw·zeer', meaning "one consecrated, devoted".[20] This word has a messianic association based on passages in Genesis and Deuteronomy.[21] A Nazirite was a person consecrated to God either from birth, such as Samson or Samuel; or for a limited time.[22] "Nazorite" is only one letter off from "Nazorean" in Greek.[7]
http://en.wikipedia....Nazarene_(title)

knox said:

Cathy of Aragon said:

I've seen people morphined up at the hospital - never did they tell me they had visited hell. And I worked there a while.
You worked in hell for a while? What was it like? Was the pay good?

#63 Rob Bowman

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Posted 07 December 2010 - 10:32 AM

maklelan,

Okay, no problem.

View Postmaklelan, on 07 December 2010 - 09:45 AM, said:

I wasn't referring to the textual corruption theory, just the general notion that Isa 11:1 is the source for the prophecy in Matthew. That was my fault for not being more clear. I apologize for that.

Rob Bowman
Director of Research, Institute for Religious Research
"BYU faculty members do not speak for the church."--Michael Purdy, LDS Church spokesman.

#64 Hick Preacher

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Posted 08 December 2010 - 02:36 PM

Theories about textual corruption are popular these days, because it would mean that history was rewritten, and the world is a completely different kind of place than we have been told by those in authority around us.

----------------

IMO the label 'Nazarene'  (Matthew 2:23 ) was used epithetically because of a number of prophecies both written and spoken, not an explicit discrete written passage in the Old Testament.

This is because the prophets referred to the coming Messiah as a despised person, rejected by many of his contemporaries . (see: Psa. 22:6-8,13; 69:8,20-21; Isa. 11:1; 49:7; 53:2-3,8; Dan. 9: 26)    

The catalyst being that  the city called ‘Nazareth’ also did not have a good reputation.
(Jn. 1:46).
Hick Preacher
Evangelical Christian
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A former Latter-day Saint-


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